Form 22 Storage Statement: Fill & Download for Free

How destructive is the World's nuclear arsenal? A topic prone to extreme exaggeration and conjecture with little reliance on the facts.The destructive force of all the world's nuclear weapons is a fraction of what it once was. Surprisingly quietly, the USA and Russia have dismantled over 50,000 nuclear weapons over the past 30 years. The nuclear materials from these bombs and other stockpiles of weapons grade materials, was recycled and used in nuclear power generation over the past 20 years. [1] A fact that few may be aware of, the situation actually crashed the uranium market in the early 2000’s. The glut of available fuel brought the open market trading value down from $20 dollars a pound to near $2 per pound at that time. So a lot has changed from the time when many of us can remember the very real threat of mutually assured destruction.Multi Megaton Weapons Now ObsoleteWhat has changed that the world no longer is building megaton weapons? The need for multi-megaton weapons was the result of low accuracy of warhead deliver on target…. we needed a sledgehammer approach to take out hardened targets and the way that was done was through very high yield bombs >=5 mt typically. The average nuclear weapon size today in 2016 is about 443kt at full yield but a large portion of those bombs can be adjusted in the field to a very small fraction of their potential yield.Today the accuracy of on target delivery has massively improved ..we hit what we aim for. This means we need less hammer to do the same job. In the 1980’s the development of earth penetrating rounds was another game changer. Not only were we on target but now we could penetrate hundreds of feet of earth and concrete before detonating the warhead. This allowed a 100 kt weapon to do the damage of a >1 mt surface detonation. This is the primary method now for targeting hardened targets and is the final driver for smaller yield bombs.The net effect of the use of EPW’s (Earth Penetrating Weapons) is a reduction in the number of casualties as compared with the number of casualties from a surface burst. This is primarily due to a 96% reduction in the weapon yield needed using an EPW. The greater coupling of the released energy to the ground shock for a buried detonation is the same as a surface burst with 25 times the explosive energy. For rural targets, the use of a nuclear earth-penetrator weapon is estimated to reduce casualties by a factor of 10 to 100 relative to a nuclear surface burst of equivalent probability of damage.[2]War room from Dr. Strangelove or: How I Learned to Stop Worrying and Love the Bomb (1964)A Common Story: “There are enough nuclear weapons to destroy the world many times over.” This is nothing more than poorly crafted fiction an urban legend. This common conclusion isn't based in any factual data. It is based solely in hype, hysteria, propaganda and fear mongering.If you take every weapon in existence today, approximately 6500 megatons between 15,000 warheads with an average yield of 433 kt, [3] and put a single bomb in its own 100 square mile grid… one bomb per grid (10 miles x 10 miles), you will contain >95% of the destructive force of each bomb on average within the grid it is in. [4] This means the total landmass to receive a destructive force from all the world's nuclear bombs is an area of 1.5 million square miles. Not quite half of the United States and 1/38 of the world's total land mass…. thats it!In truth it would be far less. A higher concentration of detonations would take place over military targets and would be likely 10–30 times greater in concentration over those areas. [5] If they were used in war it is unlikely more than 40% would get used even in a total war situation. So the actual area of intense destruction in a nuclear war is somewhere between 150,000 and 300,000 square miles or 1/384 to 1/192 of the worlds land mass.You win wars by taking out the opposing teams ability to make war, not their population centers. The arsenals of today are just enough to cover military objectives. There would be no wholesale war against civilians. That is just more fear mongering and Hollywood story telling.milliseconds after a detonation the bombs heat is conducted faster down the scaffolding support cables making these erie tentacles (called rope tricks). Contrary to most beliefs, the majority of the scaffolding often remains. Broken and thrown asunder after the detonation, the scaffolding will be scattered but it does not always vaporize.Continued from aboveThese numbers are easily verifiable, and they are right. So many have bought into the endless rhetoric of the world shattering destructiveness and the inevitable end of civilization scenarios that they can no longer be objective or analytical as they have put their beliefs in front of rational thinking. I find this true even with most scientists. I challenge anyone to just do the math …it is easy.Fallout is a short lived problem in most places.Using the 7/10 rule of exponential radionuclide decay, after just 49 days the radiation will be 1/10,000 the level it was an hour after the bombs went off and after a year and a half the radiation will have dropped below 1/100,000 of that initial level. The majority of bombs would be airburst which create little to no fallout which significantly reduces these dangers.[6]Where are you safest from fallout?A regular cellar isn't much better than being outside. A good fallout shelter has a rating of 1000, meaning it reduces your exposure to the fallout outside by a factor of 1000. A typical basement is only rated at a 10 which means you're dead if you are in the path of some major fallout.Places rated at a 1000 or higher:a sub-basement (basement under a basement) you need at least 6 feet of dirt over your head to protect you from all forms of radiation.the second level below street level of a concrete reinforced parking garage (obviously that also can be closed off at the entrance as well)the inner windowless rooms on the 4th floor or higher in a highrise building (always leave at least 2 floors above you before the roof.According to FEMA these are your best bets. Whatever gives you the greatest distance from the source of the radiation is your best option. If none of these examples are available you just need to apply that distance guideline and some common sense.[7] [8]Plan on being there at least 2 weeks and perhaps a monthA problem of scaleNuclear weapons are puny on the scale of things in nature. They may be impressive to man but they mean nothing to nature. A typical hurricane releases more energy than all the world's nuclear weapons combined in its brief lifetime. At its peak, a severe storm may have a total power near to 10^15 Watts: about 3,000 times the total electrical power generated in the world. This is equivalent to exploding 500,000 Hiroshima bombs per day. [9]The Chisholm Fire, a man-caused forest fire in Edmonton, Alberta, Canada in 2001 released the equivalent energy of 1200 Hiroshima atomic bombs or 18 megatons. [10]Large forest fires release hundreds to 10’s of 1,000’s the times of energy of the bomb dropped on Hiroshima. Forest fires release on the order of 1 megawatt per second per acre of fire area, a staggering number. [11] Its a perspective and scale issue… man doesn't have a chance in challenging nature.Another comparison of scale is the Chicxulub impact event which is thought to be the cause of the dinosaur extinction 65 million years ago. That impact released over 100,000,000 megatons of energy or over 15,300 times the world total nuclear arsenal without dramatically changing the climate in the long term.[12]How destructive is the worlds nuclear arsenals … as it relates to a possible war between Russia and the USA. A real world risk assessment.Since the early 2000’s there have been numerous scholarly papers written about an American nuclear and conventional weapons primacy and the end of MAD (Mutually Assured destruction)[13] [14] These papers suggest that the USA has such an advantage technologically that we now possess a first strike capability and that there isn't a credible threat to US dominance in the world today or in the upcoming decade. The underlying message is that the unthinkable is becoming thinkable.[15] That military planners may consider the use of local in theater nuclear strikes. Some say the risk of a nuclear exchange has never been greater.[16][17]So how would a war between Russia and the USA unfold in 2016 in a scenario of sudden escalation? There have been many relevant changes in how we posture our nuclear arsenals. In the event of a war breaking out and going nuclear there is one key difference than in the past. The majority of the available nuclear weapons have been taken off high alert. This creates a natural pause that would occur between a strike using high alert strategic assets and mobilization of non alert tactical assets. The strategic assets that would be used will include ICBM’s and SLBM’s, but not all of them. The USA and Russia, per our current treaty agreement, should have no more than 1550 warheads each in this category, all of them considerably less than 1 megaton (80–800kt typical).[18]In the USA it is estimated that approximately 1,930 warheads are deployed of which roughly 1,750 strategic warheads are deployed on ballistic missiles and at bomber bases in the United States. Another 180 tactical bombs are deployed in Europe. The remaining approximately 2,740 warheads – more than 58% – are in storage as a so-called hedge against technical or geopolitical surprises. Many of those are scheduled to be retired before 2030. In addition to the warheads in the Defense Department stockpile, approximately 2,340 retired, but still intact, warheads are in storage under the custody of the Energy Department and awaiting dismantlement, for a total US inventory of roughly 6,970 warheads. As of 1 September 2015, the United States reported that its nuclear arsenal contained 1,538 strategic warheads attributed to 762 deployed missiles and bombers on high alert– a decrease of 105 warheads and 30 launchers compared with a year ago.[19]Russia, as of early 2016, is estimated to have a stockpile of approximately 4500 nuclear warheads assigned for use by long-range strategic launchers and shorter-range tactical nuclear forces. Of these, roughly 1800 strategic warheads are deployed on missiles and at bomber bases on high alert. Another 700 strategic warheads are in storage along with nearly 2000 nonstrategic warheads. In addition to the military stockpile for operational forces, a large number – perhaps 2800 – of retired but still largely intact warheads await dismantlement for a total inventory of 7300 warheads. With its total inventory of roughly 550 deployed strategic launchers out of the 1550 warheads that is allowed by treaty, 768 warheads are on SLBM’s with a total yield of less than 70mt. Russia is already well below the limit of 700 set by New START for February 2018.[20]You may not be able to use any weapons in your active stockpile that wasn’t already deployed in the field. Since the USA no longer keeps large quantities of nukes in the field, you won't use up your strategic assets in the first exchange. The nukes that used to be kept on alert in the field have been removed from the Navy’s surface fleet and the Air Force’s available active weapons. These nukes would have to be staged from inventory first and then loaded onto vehicles. This will take some extra time. Knowing that these locations will be the first targets of a nuclear strike, time is one thing either side wont have available to spare.War on Civilians?With a limited resource of strategic warheads on high alert, you can be assured that the initial targeting is going to be all the hard military assets. Neither side is going to have the assets available for a long shopping list. ICBM’s are seen as a use it or lose it asset. If you don't use them they will be taken out in a major strike. Both the USA and Russia would put a high priority to get all the missiles launched as quickly as possible. Most SLBM’s would be held in reserve though they would still see some launched at command and control assets as the first volley in any war.After the Korean war the U.S. Army’s revised the field manual on the law of land warfare introduced a new statement that expressed as doctrine the growing importance of intention. The revised 1956 manual said, “It is a generally recognized rule of international law that civilians must not be made the object of attack directed exclusively against them.” Previous army manuals had left this rule unexpressed. As a subculture, military professionals may have placed even more emphasis on their intentions not to harm noncombatants even in the face of widespread civilian deaths. While the sources make it difficult to assess the personal sentiments of officers and soldiers about civilian casualties during the Korean War, it is not hard to believe that many in private did not want to think of themselves as waging war against defenseless civilians.[21]Military Doctrine is to minimize civilian casualties not take out the citiesThe committee notes that although some scenarios show substantial nuclear-radiation-induced fatalities, military operational guidance is to attack targets in ways to minimize collateral effects. Calculated numbers of fatalities to be expected from an attack on an HDBT might be reduced by operational planning and employment tactics. Assuming that other strategic considerations permit, the operational commander could warn of a nuclear attack on an HDBT or could time such an attack to take advantage of wind conditions that would reduce expected casualties from acute and latent effects of fallout by factors of up to 100, assuming that the wind conditions were known well enough and were stable and that defenses against the attack could not be mobilized. However, a nuclear weapon burst in a densely populated urban environment will always result in a large number of casualties.[22]MAD (Mutually Assured Destruction) has never been an accepted strategy in the military.Even today (2001), however, much discussion of MAD misses one central point: It is not the prime nuclear doctrine of the United States. For more than 30 years, increases in the size, accuracy, and sophistication of the US nuclear arsenal have reduced Mutual Assured Destruction to the status of one among many competing national strategic options.Perhaps any exchange of warheads between nuclear powers would escalate, inevitably, to total war and obliteration of both nations. That is what McNamara fervently believes to this day.However, the US military believes in preparing other, more flexible, strategic plans. Anything less would be an abdication of duty, says Gen. Russell E. Dougherty, a former commander in chief of the Air Force's Strategic Air Command."I don't think Mutual Assured Destruction was ever a military-espoused doctrine," says Dougherty.From a force planner point of view, MAD is a minimalist approach. It requires only that the American nuclear arsenal have enough warheads after any surprise first strike to destroy any opponent's population centers and civilian industry.The Air Force, by contrast, favors a larger and more complicated force structure capable of riding out a first strike and then retaliating against elusive, hardened military targets.[23]"Our philosophy has always been counterforce," says Dougherty. "Force is what hurts us. Find his force, and dis-enable it or denude it."“Riding the bomb” a scene from Dr Strangelove. The world has changed a lot or has it? General Ripper can be substituted with a rogue nuclear state in 2016.Continued from aboveAfter the Initial StrikeThis is where the natural pause after launching your strategic assets will come in handy. Cooler minds will hopefully be clammering for a cease fire.In a real world situation today, it is likely that both sides would see massive losses of their strategic, tactical and reserve nuclear weapons stockpiles as a result of not having these weapons on high alert. The military would be scrambling to get these assets staged and mounted on delivery vehicles with less than an hour of working time, more likely less than 30 minutes. Very few tactical assets would make it out into the field before that area is hammered by dozens of warheads. As a result, any war will see only a fraction of the prewar quantity of warheads actually get used. I would bet that both sides would lose at least 50% in the first strikes. The challenge here is that civilian casualties will always be high due to the close proximity of nuclear assets to population centers.The known locations of nuclear weapons stores at 111 locations in 14 countries, according to an overview produced by FAS and NRDC.Russia: Nearly 1,000 nuclear weapons surround Saratov. Russia has an estimated 48 permanent nuclear weapon storage sites, of which more than half are on bases for operational forces. There are approximately 19 storage sites, of which about half are national-level storage facilities. In addition, a significant number of temporary storage sites occasionally store nuclear weapons in transit between facilities. This is a significant consolidation from the estimated 90 Russian sites ten years ago, and more than 500 sites before 1991.Many of the Russian sites are in close proximity to each other and large populated areas. One example is the Saratov area where the city is surrounded by a missile division, a strategic bomber base, and a national-level storage site with probably well over 1,000 nuclear warheads combined.There is considerable uncertainty about the number of Russian nuclear weapons storage sites, for several reasons. First, the Russian government provides almost no information about its nuclear warhead storage program. Second, Western governments say very little about what they know.Moreover, estimates vary on what constitutes a “storage site;” some count each fenced storage bunker as a site, even though there may be several individually fenced bunkers within a larger storage complex.We count each storage complex as one site or storage location and estimate that Russia today stores nuclear weapons permanently at 40 domestic locations. This is a slight reduction from our 2009 estimate, but a significant reduction from the 100 sites in the late-1990s, 250 sites in the mid-1990s, and 500 sites in 1991.Although the Russian government provides almost no public information about its nuclear weapons storage program, it has occasionally made declarations. For example, at the 2010 Non-Proliferation Treaty Review Conference, Russia declared that “the total number of nuclear weapons storage facilities has been reduced fourfold” since 1991 (Russian Federation, 2010a: At the same event, the Russian delegation distributed a publication stating that “ Russian non-strategic nuclear weapons are concentrated in centralized storage bases exclusively ob the national territory” (Russian Federation, 2010b: Moreover, twice a year under the terms of New START, the Kremlin hands over a detailed list of its strategic force deployments to the US government. Unfortunately, the list is secret.There is also uncertainty about the status of many nuclear weapon systems, including what constitutes “non-strategic” weapons. For example, medium-range Tu-22M3 Backfire bombers are sometimes described by Russians as more than tactical, but they are not considered strategic in arms control agreements signed by Russia. Consequently, this notebook considers the Tu-22M3 and all other weapons not covered by New START to be non-strategic and to be covered by the Russian declarations that all non-strategic nuclear warheads have been placed in central storage.Russian permanent nuclear weapon storage locations fall into three main categories: operational warheads at Strategic Rocket Force, navy and air force bases; non-strategic and reserve/retired warheads at national-level storage sites; and warheads at assembly/disassembly factories.The storage locations for operational warheads include 11 ICBM fields and garrisons, two nuclear submarine bases, and two heavy bomber bases. The national-level storage sites include 12 separate storage sites, although the status of a few of these is unclear. The warhead production complexes also have warhead storage facilities. [24]The United States in 2014 stores nuclear weapons at 18 sites, including 12 sites in 11 states in the United States and another six sites in five European countries. At the end of the Cold War, the United States maintained thousands of nuclear weapons outside of its borders on land and on the high seas.In 2014 the United States has further consolidated its nuclear weapons into fewer sites. Most significant is the apparent termination of nuclear weapons storage at Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada, which only a decade ago contained one of the world’s largest concentrations of nuclear weapons. Similarly, nuclear weapons have been removed from Barksdale Air Force Base, one of three remaining heavy bomber bases,4 and from all tactical fighter-bomber bases in the continental United States. All Air Force nuclear warheads are now stored at five locations: three intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) bases (F. E. Warren, Malmstrom, Minot), two bomber bases (Minot, Whiteman), and one central storage facility, Kirtland Underground Munitions Storage Complex (KUMSC).The last naval non-strategic nuclear weapon system—the Tomahawk land-attack cruise missile (TLAM/N)—was eliminated in 2012. The weapons were stored at the Strategic Weapons Facilities at Bangor in Washington and at Kings Bay in Georgia, the only two remaining naval nuclear weapons storage sites.The United States is the only nuclear-armed state that deploys nuclear weapons in other countries. Approximately 180 non-strategic nuclear bombs are stored in underground vaults beneath 87 aircraft shelters at six bases in five European countries (Belgium, Germany, Italy, the Netherlands, and Turkey) for delivery by US and NATO fighter-bombers. [25]Approximately 50 B61 (variable yield bomb 0.3 to 340 kiloton) nuclear bombs inside an igloo at what might be Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada. Seventy-five igloos at Nellis store “one of the largest stockpile in the free world,” according to the U.S. Air Force, one of four central storage sites in the United States.Continued from aboveThere is little comfort in this scenario other than the scope of a real nuclear war would likely only involve a fraction of the world's nuclear arsenals, perhaps 1/3 of the world total at most and that a natural pause in the hostilities early on might prevent it from being even that much. It isn't much and it shouldn't make you happy as we are on the verge of going backwards it seems. I am just calling a spade a spade here. This shouldn't be such a risk after making so much progress on disarmament, but it is.Projected US Casualties and Destruction of US Medical Services From Attacks by Russian Nuclear ForcesA 2002 study puts the US death toll from a strategic counterforce strike from the combined effects of blast, burns, and radiation, the attack by 2,000 warheads would cause 52 ± 2 million deaths and 9 ± 1 million injuries, even though it was primarily directed at military targets in sparsely populated areas. The goal of the first attack to recall, was to destroy US military, political, and economic targets. In the 2,000-warhead scenario, there were 660 air bursts, many of which had overlapping zones of mass fires and blast damage because the distances separating some of the targets were less than the diameter of the zones.In a second analysis a vengeance strike against countervalue targets (non-strategic population centers) In this second scenario, the US targets for 500 Russian nuclear weapons are chosen to maximize loss of life. If all 500 warheads detonated over their targets, a total of 132 million deaths and 8 million injuries are calculated to occur.The US Major Attack Options (MAO) in this first scenario assumes a Russian attack similar in target categories to a comprehensive US MAO, with 1,249 discrete targets, some receiving multiple warheads.[26]This 2002 study was made in a time when the world had twice as many nuclear weapons as we have today in 2016. The high alert weapons are fewer and have smaller yields in 2016. The list of high priority targets still remains high which means that there will be no available weapons for countervalue targets of population centers.This report intentionally emphasised a high casualty countervalue attack with the targets chosen for the highest loss of life. This was in response to a proposed National Missile Defense system which for some reason would mean the Russians would target civilians. I don't know why that is a logical conclusion. It really makes no sense and in the scenario in 2016 there isn't going to be strategic weapons available to do such a thing.All the strategic high alert Russian weapons will be aimed at the 1249 targets referenced in that study. In truth, the available weapons to cover this is insufficient to ensure all those targets are taken out. Using all 1800 high alert Russian warheads against 1249 targets only gives you a coverage of 1.4 warheads on a target. In the height of the cold war some targets had over 60 warheads assigned to them. While this is clearly overkill the ratio of 1.4 to 1 is not. It is unlikely that this force of missiles would be able to take out all the known targets as a result.The total military targets of the USA easily consumes all of Russia’s strategics weapons destructive power leaving zero weapons available for civilian targets.There are over 6000 military bases and military warehouses located in the U.S.A. These facilities include a total of 845,441 different buildings and equipments [27] with a total building area 2.1 billion square feet or 75 square miles.[28] The US also has over 800 bases in foreign lands. Adding to the bases inside U.S. territory, the total land area occupied by US military bases domestically within the US and internationally is of the order of TBD (in excess of 100,000 square miles - online numbers reported add up to more than the reported total), which makes the Pentagon one of the largest landowners worldwide.So while the destruction would be less and the cities would not be targeted, the 52 million dead is probably a reasonable figure since the us population has increased over 20% since the time of this report.Map of military facilities in the United States (full size here [29] )EMP EffectsIn the case of high altitude nuclear bursts, two main EMP types come into play, “fast pulse” and the “slow pulse.” The fast pulse EMP field is created by gamma ray interaction with stratospheric air molecules. It peaks at tens of kilovolts per meter in a few nanoseconds, and lasts for a few hundred nanoseconds. The broad-band frequency content of (0-1000 megahertz) enables it to couple to electrical and electronic systems in general, regardless of the length of their penetrating cables and antenna lines. Induced currents range into the 1,000s of amperes. The “slow pulse” EMP is caused by the distortion of the earth’s magnetic field lines due to the expanding nuclear fireball and rising of heated and ionized layers of the ionosphere.DoD has adopted protective priorities using commercial protective equipment. The Department of Defense (DoD) has experience in prioritizing and protecting systems since the 1960s. The DoD has prioritized and has protected selected systems against EMP (and, by similitude to E3, GMD effects). DoD places emphasis on protecting its strategic triad and associated command, control, communications, computer, and intelligence (C4I) systems.Nuclear EMP will burn out every exposed electronic system is FALSE. Based on DoD and Congressional EMP Commission’s EMP test data bases we know that smaller, self-contained systems that are not connected to long-lines tend not to be affected by EMP fields. Examples of such systems include vehicles, hand-held radios, and disconnected portable generators. If there is an effect on these systems, it is more often temporary upset rather than component burnout. [30]“The most probable effect of EMP on a modern nuclear power plant is an unscheduled shutdown. EMP may also cause an extended shutdown by the unnecessary activation of some safety-related systems. In general, EMP would be a nuisance to nuclear plants, but it is not considered a serious threat to plant safety. Counter-measures to minimize the effects of EMP have been recommended. Implementation of these recommendations would also increase the protection of the plant against damage by lightning, switching, and electromagnetic interference transients as well as general failures in electrical, control, and instrument power. “ [31]In SummarySo here is the bottom line. The countries involved, the USA and Russia, will live on and the vast majority of the world would remain untouched. I am not saying it would be pretty as it certainly would not. It would be an unprecedented catastrophe for the USA without a parallel. While Russia has lived through invasions and suffered 10’s of millions dead in WII this would surely exceed that as well. Between the two countries there would be 10’s of millions dead, a total of 150 million is certainly a possibility but even that number means hundreds of millions more survived and for the majority it would be imminently survivable.It would not be the end of man, the world, civilization and not even the end of our countries. All the hype and fear mongering is just that. It isn't hard to do a valid analysis for your own peace of mind.MAD or mutually assured destruction, as a strategy does not exist in 2016 . The above math makes that evident. MAD actually has never been the official accepted position of the USA or Russia. For most of the post cold war era the USA has adopted deterrence as our primary policy.[32] Evidence suggests that this may be changing. A more important epiphany than realizing MAD no longer applies would be to understand the impact of this new reality in the world's future political and military decisions. [33]Further detailed reading on this subject and an analysis debunking a nuclear winter Allen E Hall's answer to In a total nuclear exchange where the entire worlds arsenals are used, how long would the nuclear winter last and would we survive?In the News:Russia Withdraws From a Post-Cold War Nuclear DealU.S. Accuses Russia of Violating Missile TreatyRussia calls new U.S. missile defense system a ‘direct threat’Russia says US missile system breaches nuclear INF treaty - BBC NewsThe future of U.S.-Russian arms control | Brookings InstitutionThe LRSO: US Plans for Nuclear PrimacyNote: I make no claim that I an right… I only offer an analysis with considerations for details and data overlooked by others … sometimes intentionally. Please do your own due diligence and make an educated determination for yourself. Feel free to challenge my analysis, I welcome opposing views.Footnotes[1] Against Long Odds, MIT’s Thomas Neff Hatched a Plan to Turn Russian Warheads into American Electricity[2] The National Academies Press[3] https://fas.org/issues/nuclear-weapons/nuclear-notebook/[4] NUKEMAP[5] Overkill Is Not Dead[6] The 7:10 Rule of Thumb[7] https://www.ready.gov/sites/default/files/shelter.txt[8] Nuclear Blast | Ready.gov[9] What is Physics Good For?[10] http://www.atmos-chem-phys.net/6/5247/2006/acp-6-5247-2006.pdf[11] The Nuclear Imperative[12] The KT extinction[13] http://www.mitpressjournals.org/doi/pdf/10.1162/isec.2006.30.4.7[14] https://www.usnwc.edu/getattachment/a9324932-a61c-4ad4-9626-8e9978b455f7/Johnson-Freese-and-Nichols.aspx[15] Rethinking the Unthinkable[16] A Nuclear Conflict with Russia is Likelier Than You Think[17] http://www.frstrategie.org/publications/notes/web/documents/2016/201601.pdf[18] https://fas.org/sgp/crs/nuke/R41219.pdf[19] http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1080/00963402.2016.1145901[20] http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1080/00963402.2016.1170359[21] http://www.globalresearch.ca/americas-ethics-of-bombing-civilians-after-world-war-ii-massive-casualties-and-the-targeting-civilians-in-the-korean-war/5402007[22] The National Academies Press[23] Air Force Magazine[24] Worldwide deployments of nuclear weapons, 2014[25] Worldwide deployments of nuclear weapons, 2014[26] http://www.ippnw.org/pdf/mgs/7-2-helfand.pdf[27] http://www.globalresearch.ca/the-worldwide-network-of-us-military-bases/5564[28] http://www.gsa.gov/graphics/ogp/FY_2010_FRPP_Report_Final.pdf[29] Image on wikimedia.org[30] https://oversight.house.gov/wp-content/uploads/2015/05/Baker-Statement-5-13-EMP.pdf[31] Effects of nuclear electromagnetic pulse (EMP) on nuclear power plants (Technical Report)[32] http://www.nukestrat.com/us/stratcom/SAGessentials.PDF[33] http://belfercenter.hks.harvard.edu/files/is3004_pp007-044_lieberpress.pdf

The Most Starred Packages section on npm is a good starting point (numbers = stars):express Fast, unopinionated, minimalist web framework - 482async Higher-order functions and common patterns for asynchronous code - 280grunt The JavaScript Task Runner - 236request Simplified HTTP request client. - 219socket.io node.js realtime framework server - 206lodash A utility library delivering consistency, customization, performance, & extras. - 205gulp The streaming build system - 170mocha simple, flexible, fun test framework - 164mongoose Mongoose MongoDB ODM - 151underscore JavaScript's functional programming helper library. - 146hapi HTTP Server framework - 116commander the complete solution for node.js command-line programs - 111jade Jade template engine - 102browserify browser-side require() the node way - 101redis Redis client library - 100colors get colors in your node.js console like what - 89moment Parse, manipulate, and display dates. - 87coffee-script Unfancy JavaScript - 80connect High performance middleware framework - 80passport Simple, unobtrusive authentication for Node.js. - 75nodemailer Easy as cake e-mail sending from your Node.js applications - 74q A library for promises (CommonJS/Promises/A,B,D) - 69bower The browser package manager - 67sails API-driven framework for building realtime apps, using MVC conventions (based on Express and Socket.IO) - 64cheerio Tiny, fast, and elegant implementation of core jQuery designed specifically for the server - 62optimist Light-weight option parsing with an argv hash. No optstrings attached. - 62jshint Static analysis tool for JavaScript - 61mongodb A node.js driver for MongoDB - 60uglify-js JavaScript parser, mangler/compressor and beautifier toolkit - 60chalk Terminal string styling done right. Created because the `colors` module does some really horrible things. - 58mysql A node.js driver for mysql. It is written in JavaScript, does not require compiling, and is 100% MIT licensed. - 57nodemon Simple monitor script for use during development of a node.js app. - 57stylus Robust, expressive, and feature-rich CSS superset - 56mkdirp Recursively mkdir, like `mkdir -p` - 54validator String validation and sanitization - 53grunt-contrib-watch Run predefined tasks whenever watched file patterns are added, changed or deleted. - 49debug small debugging utility - 48winston A multi-transport async logging library for Node.js - 47forever A simple CLI tool for ensuring that a given node script runs continuously (i.e. forever) - 44formidable A node.js module for parsing form data, especially file uploads. - 44node-inspector Web Inspector based nodeJS debugger - 44koa Koa web app framework - 43grunt-cli The grunt command line interface. - 42marked A markdown parser built for speed - 42npm A package manager for node - 42bcrypt A bcrypt library for NodeJS. - 41shelljs Portable Unix shell commands for Node.js - 41glob a little globber - 40chai BDD/TDD assertion library for node.js and the browser. Test framework agnostic. - 39bluebird Full featured Promises/A+ implementation with exceptionally good performance - 37grunt-contrib-uglify Minify files with UglifyJS. - 37less Leaner CSS - 34minimist parse argument options - 34node-uuid Rigorous implementation of RFC4122 (v1 and v4) UUIDs. - 34through simplified stream contsruction - 33grunt-contrib-jshint Validate files with JSHint. - 32mime A comprehensive library for mime-type mapping - 32should test framework agnostic BDD-style assertions - 32gm GraphicsMagick and ImageMagick for node.js - 31gulp-uglify Minify files with UglifyJS. - 31restify REST framework - 31backbone Give your JS App some Backbone with Models, Views, Collections, and Events. - 30pm2 Modern CLI process manager for Node apps with a builtin load-balancer - 30event-stream construct pipes of streams of events - 29n node version manager - 29xml2js Simple XML to JavaScript object converter. - 28ejs Embedded JavaScript templates - 27ws simple to use, blazing fast and thoroughly tested websocket client, server and console for node.js, up-to-date against RFC-6455 - 27grunt-contrib-cssmin Compress CSS files. - 26http-server a simple zero-configuration command-line http server - 26inquirer A collection of common interactive command line user interfaces. - 26jsdom A JavaScript implementation of the DOM and HTML standards - 26gulp-concat Concatenates files - 25http-proxy HTTP proxying for the masses - 25pg PostgreSQL client - pure javascript & libpq with the same API - 25sequelize Multi dialect ORM for Node.JS - 25yo CLI tool for running Yeoman generators - 25bearcat a POJOs based application framework for node.js - 24grunt-contrib-copy Copy files and folders. - 24istanbul Yet another JS code coverage tool that computes statement, line, function and branch coverage with module loader hooks to transparently add coverage when running tests. Supports all JS coverage use cases including unit tests, server side functional tests - 24grunt-contrib-clean Clean files and folders. - 23handlebars Handlebars provides the power necessary to let you build semantic templates effectively with no frustration - 23levelup Fast & simple storage - a Node.js-style LevelDB wrapper - 23nconf Hierarchical node.js configuration with files, environment variables, command-line arguments, and atomic object merging. - 23superagent elegant & feature rich browser / node HTTP with a fluent API - 23bunyan a JSON logging library for node.js services - 22grunt-contrib-concat Concatenate files. - 22minimatch a glob matcher in javascript - 22npm-check-updates Find newer versions of dependencies than what your package.json allows - 22yeoman The Yeoman CLI is deprecated. See Page on yeoman.io for more info. - 22esprima ECMAScript parsing infrastructure for multipurpose analysis - 21jquery JavaScript library for DOM operations - 21markdown A sensible Markdown parser for javascript - 21phantomjs Headless WebKit with JS API - 21supertest Super-agent driven library for testing HTTP servers - 21csv CSV parser with simple api, full of options and tested against large datasets. - 20grunt-contrib-imagemin Minify images - 20rimraf A deep deletion module for node (like `rm -rf`) - 20tap A Test-Anything-Protocol library - 20co generator async flow control goodness - 19

You can use the following answer key which has been diligently prepared by a team of diverse faculties from leading institutes, where each solution for a particular question has also been backed with a credible source as well.Special thanks to Mr. Pranav Chauhan, Mr. Mansimar Singh and Shri User-13211618028665871653 (IAS) for their valuable inputs in this key.Analysis :The paper was moderately difficult like that in 2017 but there were also relatively easier knock-offs when compared to 2018.Breakdown of various subjects asked this year :1. Environment : 18 questions2. Science & Tech : 14 questions3. Economics : 17 questions4. History : 15 questions5. Geography : 10 questions6. Polity and Governance : 17 questions7. Miscellaneous : 9 questionsEstimated Cutoffs based on paper difficulty and students’ response :General : 105–108.OBC : 100–105SC : 91–95ST : 84–88KEY FOR SET-D UPSC Prelims 2019 :1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c). 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: About AIIB Overview - AIIB2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lendingAnswer: DSource: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/announcements/others/indian-bank-inter-creditor-agreement-for-resolution-of-stressed-assets/article24809734.ece3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankAnswer: ASource: How public sector bank CEOs are selected4. Consider the following statements:1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource: Welcome to Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board, India5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource: Difference Between LTE and VoLTE6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CStatement 2 is wrong:Refer: Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017: Significant Provisions and Issuessignificant-provisions-and-issues/Correct Statement: The women employees should be permitted to visit the facility 4 timesduring the day.https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/Maternity%20Benefit%20Amendment%20Act%2C2017%20.pdf7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?(a) Maintenance of law and order(b) Paying taxes(c) Registering property(d) Dealing with construction permitsAnswer: ASource: Methodology for Doing Business8. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011Answer: CSource: Environment Ministry Notifies E-Waste Management Rules, 20169. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus(a) transportation cost only(b) interest cost only(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godownsAnswer: CSource: Procurement- Food Corporation of India10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?(a) The proportion of literates in the population(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines(c) The size of population in the working age group(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the societyAnswer: DSource: Social capital - Wikipedia11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of(a) Integrated Rural Programme(b) Lead Bank Scheme(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme(d) National Skill Development MissionAnswer: BSource : What is Service Area Approach?12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: Minor Minerals - Arthapedia13. Consider the following statements:1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Why is external debt a cause for worry?14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?(a) Advances(b) Deposits(e) Investments(d). Money at call and short noticeAnswer: BSource : Liabilities and Assets of Scheduled Commercial Banks (Main Items)15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector2. Increasing the government expenditure3. Remittances from Indians abroadSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: : BSource : Basic Economic Concepts [NCERT Class 11 and 12]16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)Answer: CSource : Governor’s Role in the Context of Centre State Relations17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?(a) Certificate of Deposit(b) Commercial Paper(c) Promissory Note(d) Participatory NoteAnswer: DSource : Participatory Notes Allow Foreign Investors to Buy Indian Securities18. Consider the following statements1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : CAMPA bill - Wikipedia19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees3. Finance Commission4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission5. NITI AayogSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 3, 4 and 5(d) 2 and 5Answer: ASource : Laxmikanth20. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : NCERT Class 11 Economicshttps://www.nipfp.org.in/media/pdf/books/BK_33/Chapters/1.%20Import%20Substitution%20Strategy%20Of%20Economic%20Development.pdfFive-Year Plans of India - Wikipedia21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Laxmikanth22. Consider the following statements1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : Measuring India’s economy using PPPs shows it surpassed France 25 years ago23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: AStatement 2 is incorrect.Source- https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/rabi-sowing-down-by-5/article26029944.ece24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?(a) Spices(b) Fresh fruits(c) Pulses(d) Vegetable oilsAnswer: DSource – Let’s cut edible oil importsWhy doubling agri exports may remain elusive25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers(b) Absence of restraint(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.Answer: DSource - Indian Preamble26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing(d) Following an expansionary monetary policyAnswer: DSource – NCERT class 11 and 12 Economics27. Consider the following statements:The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar yearWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - Reserve Bank of IndiaIn Defence of Data Localisation — Will The Move Bolster Data Sovereignty In India28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?(a) Australia(b) Canada(c) The European Union(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: CSource - General Data Protection Regulation - Wikipedia29. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?(a) Japan(b) Russia(c) The United Kingdom(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: b30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio(d) Increase in the population of the countryAnswer: bSource- Multiplier Effect Definition31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.Answer: BSource - Article 142 in The Constitution Of India 194933. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: C34. Consider the following statements:1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - https://www.unodc.org/unodc/en/treaties/CAC/35. Consider the following statements:1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource - Bamboo not a tree: Parliament passes Bill amending Forest Acthttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/bamboo-now-a-minor-forest-produce-3323936. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?(a) Article 19(b) Article 21(c) Article 25(d) Article 29Answer: BWider Interpretation of Article 21Source - http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/art222.htm37. Consider the following statements:1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource –https://www.ifoam.bio/en/news/2018/05/08/indian-supreme-court-says-seeds-plants-and-animals-are-not-patentable http://www.mondaq.com/india/x/611548/Trademark/The+Intellectual+Property+Appellate+Board+Power+Constitution38. Consider the following statements:The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sourcesWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://bch.cbd.int/database/attachment/?id=1905239. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.(b) The Rules are applicable to riotified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.Answer: CSource - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138591http://cpcb.nic.in/municipal-solid-waste-rules/40. Consider the following statements:As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 20181. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource – http://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/daily-news/industrial-employment-standing-orders-central-amendment-rules-2018-fixed-term-employment41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) 4 onlyAnswer: BStatement 1 is wrong because AR doesn’t shut off Physical realitySource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs(b) an early human species(c) a cave system found in North-East India.(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinentAnswer: BSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denisovan43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.Answer: ASource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petri_dishhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cell_culture and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_replication44. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchangedWhich of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: https://www.docusign.com/how-it-works/electronic-signature/digital-signature/digital-signature-faqhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signatureSource : http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired personSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6111409/46. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 2 and 3(c) 1 and 3(d) 1 and 4 onlyAnswer: ASource : https://www.livemint.com/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interferencehttps://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1697196747. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.Answer: BSource:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/watch-binary-black-holes-merger/article18700610.ece48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some peopleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/the-cost-of-resistance/article27005283.ece49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified cropsAnswer: : Ahttps://phys.org/news/2019-02-scientists-sharpen-molecular-scissors-gene.htmlhttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-genome-editing/article19481402.ece50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.Answer: BSource : https://www.hepb.org/prevention-and-diagnosis/vaccination/51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(e) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: D52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.Answer: BSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Land_reform_in_India53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the(a) International Monetary Fund(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development(c) World Economic Forum(d) World BankAnswer: CSource: http://reports.weforum.org/54. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Spectrum Book page-566-56755. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource: Spectrum, Bipin Chandra’s India’s Struggle for independence Page-13056. Consider the following pairs:Movement/Organization Leader1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami NaickerWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: Spectrum , Wikipedia57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?(a) Chanhudaro(b) Kot Diji(c) Sohgaura(d) DesalpurAnswer: cSource : Sohgaura is near Gorakhpur, which falls outside the Harappan Area Map.58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?(a) Kanganahalli(b) Sanchi I(c) Shahbazgarhi(d) SohgauraAnswer: ASource: Wikipedia and http://bharatkalyan97.blogspot.com/2011/07/asoka-on-ancient-indian-sculptures.html59. Consider the following:1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and ritualsWhich of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: RS Sharma, https://www.gktoday.in/gk/hinayana-mahayana/60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.Answer: ASource: Upendra Singh (Page:508)Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=H3lUIIYxWkEC&pg=PA508&lpg=PA508&dq=vishti+forced+labour+in+kathiawar&source=bl&ots=xf9E4T6ZkD&sig=ACfU3U2yg3DCAuGhsU3x22JsPuSxzK6wzw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjKgP-zzcriAhUFsY8KHRQ1DoAQ6AEwCXoECAgQAQ#v=onepage&q=vishti%20forced%20labour%20in%20kathiawar&f=false61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber.(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane(d) Rubber, coffee and wheatAnswer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange#Organism_examples62. Consider the following statements:1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASources:https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/mammals/a/asiatic-lion/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lionhttps://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/india-interior/two-humps-one-job-in-nubra-valley/article7900544.ecehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_rhinoceros#Distribution_and_habitat63. Consider the following pairsFamous place RiverPandharpur ChandrabhagaTiruchirappalli CauveryHampi MalaprabhaWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hampi#Location64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because(a) poverty rates vary from State to State(b) price levels vary from State to State(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to StateAnswer: Either A or BSource:- https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/how-poverty-line-measured65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth(d) Reducing the global warmingAnswer: Dhttps://journals.ametsoc.org/doi/full/10.1175/JCLI-D-17-0620.166. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?(a) Extraction of rare earth elements(b) Natural gas extraction technologies(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles(d) Waste-to-energy technologiesAnswer: DSource:- https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger ReserveAnswer: ASOURCE:- https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/tags/agasthyamala-biosphere-reserve68. Consider the following statements:1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.2. Some species of fish are herbivores.3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(e) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://www.seeturtles.org/sea-turtle-diethttp://www.healthyreefs.org/cms/healthy-reef-indicators/herbivorous-fish-abundance/https://www.noaa.gov/education/resource-collections/marine-life-education-resources/marine-mammalshttp://www.reptileknowledge.com/articles/article28.php69. Consider the following pairs:Wildlife Naturally found in1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern GhatsWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource :https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/iconic-indian-fish-on-the-verge-of-extinction-says-study-49802https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irrawaddy_dolphinhttp://www.conservationindia.org/articles/the-forgotten-wild-cats-of-the-eastern-ghats70. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.Answer: : ASource : https://www.environment.gov.au/protection/waste-resource-recovery/plastics-and-packaging/plastic-microbeads71. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of(a) Chalukya(b) Chandela(c) Rashtrakuta(d) VijayanagaraAnswer: DSOURCE : https://www.jagranjosh.com/general-knowledge/cultural-history-vijaynagar-empire-architecture-literature-and-art-1492780525-172. Consider the following statements:1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Statement 2- IQTA System introduced in medieval (not ancient) period.Statement 3-Office of Mir Bakshi introduced during Mughal period.73. Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource :https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nimbarkahttp://www.southasiaanalysis.org/paper924https://www.sikhiwiki.org/index.php/Jahangir_and_the_Muslim_fundamentalist_movement74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource :https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Mahatma_Gandhi,_his_life,_writings_and_speeches/Indentured_Labourhttps://scroll.in/article/680616/even-gandhi-apostle-of-peace-wanted-indians-to-fight-in-world-war-iStatement 3- Page 421, Spectrum(A brief history of modern India)75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:Person Position held1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of IndiaWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource :https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kshitish_Chandra_Neogyhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Puran_Chand_Joshi76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.Answer: ASource:- https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?(a) Humayun(b) Akbar(c) Jahangir(d) Shah JahanAnswer: CSource : https://www.academia.edu/33006704/Mughal_Paintings78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?(a) Manas National Park(b) Namdapha National Park(c) Neora Valley National Park(d) Valley of Flowers National ParkAnswer: DSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valley_of_Flowers_National_Park#Vegetation79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the(a) Department of Science and Technology(b) Ministry of Employment(c) NITI Aayog(d) Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipAnswer: CSource : http://vikaspedia.in/education/policies-and-schemes/atal-innovation-mission80. On 21st June, the Sun(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of CapricornAnswer: ASource : GC LEONG, PAGE NO-681. Consider the following statements:1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource - http://www.ghgonline.org/nitrousagri.htmhttps://www.government.nl/topics/livestock-farming/ammonia-emissions-from-farmshttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits(b) Tropical rain forests(c) Underground cave systems(d) Water reservoirsAnswer: DSource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aliyar_Reservoirhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isapur_Damhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kangsabati_Project83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource - https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/09/11/rajya-sabha-tv-in-depth-hcng-fuel-of-the-future/https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cng-to-hydrogen-cng-why-switch-and-how-5278356/84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.(c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.Answer: BSource - https://www.pitara.com/science-for-kids/5ws-and-h/how-does-dew-form/85. Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://www.ias4sure.com/wikiias/gs2/44th-amendment/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Judicial_Appointments_Commission86. Consider the following statements:1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2(b) 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CSource – Laxmikanth Page 25.2 and 25.387. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of(a) Jawaharlal Nehru(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri(c) Indira Gandhi(d) Morarji DesaiAnswer: ASource - http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/essay/judicial-review-and-the-ninth-schedule-of-the-indian-constitution/2498288. Consider the following statements:1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coal_mining_in_Indiahttp://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=160021https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/indias-coal-import-rises-13-to-21-mt-in-april/articleshow/69503158.cms89. Consider the following statements:1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: AArticle 102 only mentions the term “Office of Profit” without defining it.Source - https://indiankanoon.org/doc/390434/90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?(a) Third Schedule(b) Fifth Schedule(c) Ninth Schedule(d) Twelfth ScheduleAnswer: BSource – https://tribal.nic.in/FRA/data/LandandGovernanceunderFifthSchedule.pdfhttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/forests/-progressive-maharashtra-governor-must-step-in-to-save-tribal-land-rights-6421791. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of(a) anti-malarial drug(b) blodiesel(c) pulp for paper industry(d) textile fibreAnswer: DSource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/environment/khar-s-experimentation-with-himalayan-nettle-brings-recognition-5788092. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location3. Land surface temperatures of a specific locationSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: D93. Consider the following States:1. Chhattisgarh2. Madhya Pradesh3. Maharashtra4. OdishaWith reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?(a) 2-3-1-4(b) 2-3-4-1(c) 3-2-4-1(d) 3-2-1-4Answer: CSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forest_cover_by_state_in_India94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://ghginstitute.org/2010/07/13/what-is-different-about-methane-ch4-emissions-the-forgotten-co2-in-ghg-emissions-accounting/95. Consider the following:1. Carbon monoxide2. Methane3. Ozone4. Sulphur dioxideWhich of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 1 and 4 'only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/environment/pollution/biomass-burning-a-major-source-of-pollution-in-india/articleshow/45093405.cms?from=mdr96. Consider the following pairs:Sea Bordering country1. Adriatic Sea Albania2. Black Sea Croatia3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco5. Red Sea SyriaWhich of the pair given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 5 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5Answer: BSource : Atlas97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?(a) China(b) India(c) Myanmar(d) VietnamAnswer: bSource : http://www.worldstopexports.com/rice-exports-country/98. Consider the following pairs:Glacier River1. Bandarpunch Yamuna2. Bara Shigri Chenab3. Milam Mandakini4. Siachen Nubra5. Zemu ManasWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 2 and 5(d) 3 and 5Answer: aSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_glaciers_of_India99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as(a) pesticides in agriculture(b) preservatives in processed foods(c) fruit-ripening agents(d) moisturising agents in cosmeticsAnswer: ASource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/pesticide-ban-lands-kerala-in-court-33657100. Consider the following statements:1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer : CSource : https://www.ramsar.org/about/the-ramsar-convention-and-its-mission