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PDF Editor FAQ

My new refinance "zero cost and zero point" rate is lower and I can use money saved to prepay the mortgage to shorten the time. Should I refinance without hesitation? Is this a no-brainer?

I noticed you are using the terms ‘zero cost’ and ‘zero point’. Is this your terminology or the lender’s?If it is the lender’s term, they are false advertising.Or, per chance, not so much the lending institution directly, as the loan officer that works for them is undisciplined in his/her loan presentation (which still leaves his/her employer culpable).By law (in the USA) a lender can not advertise ‘zero cost’, because there is always costs associated with mortgage originations.The legal term is ‘no upfront cost’; meaning the non-recurring loan costs have been adjusted into your note rate.All loans have point calculations, but most consumers do not know about wholesale rate sheets; wherefrom, the final adjusted mortgage loan offering is made to you. That is when you are offered a ‘lock-in’ rate.Since you are asking this question, it indicates you have not lock-in your rate; whereby, accepting the mortgage. If you have, you have limited time to proceed finalizing the loan.Regardless, I would be critical of—if in fact the lender’s representative used the term zero cost/zero points—moving forward with a lender or lender’s loan officer that is unprofessional with such deceptive terminology.By law (USA) you should have been given a GFE (Good Faith Estimate). In this document all non-recurring loan costs would have to be shown. It can not be blank, as the term zero cost indicates.If it is an online mortgage company, this entity is not exempt from the truth in lending laws. In fact, in order to operate via the internet on an inter-State basis, they need to comply with each State’s truth in lending laws, in addition to the corresponding Federal disclosure laws, to originate mortgages.So, your new refinance with ‘zero cost’ does not exist legally within the US; unless, or course, you are using your term to describe a no upfront cost loan.If not, I would report this lender to the State Attorney General’s office.

What does it mean if my home mortgage is sold to another mortgage holder?

While you are told that your mortgage has been sold, the truth of the matter is that the MSRs ( mortgage servicing rights) have been sold, and the mortgage remains with the “lender”.Remember that there are 2 parts to a mortgage, although everyone lumps the two together and glosses over this important fact:the mortgage, which is the “lender’s” security or collateral. If you go to your county courthouse and look up your mortgage on the instrument summary list, you will no doubt see an AOM, or assignment of mortgage . But just because it is recorded, and everything is attested to, notarized, certified etc, is meaningless. In all the millions of foreclosure cases nationwide, I have yet to see any proof that anyone paid anything for any mortgage. Under the TILA, ( truth in lending act) , this law requires that your “lender “ be identified to you. This iis never enforced by judges.The second part of the mortgage is the promissory note; this is your promise to pay your mortgage under the terms of the loan. This has to be endorsed from one party to the next is the loan has actually been sold. Usually it is blank. And the entity listed on your mortgage note is the “originator”, most of them, hundreds of them, went bust in 2007–2008. Taking the note with them, as they were listed as the lender(they were t) and the notes are now produced in foreclosure proceedings with someone else lksted as the lender.so: the mortgage can be assigned, but the note has to be negotiated , for value. And, “the mortgage follows the note “. Without s properly endorsed note with an unbroken path of ownership, the mortgage is worthless.

Why is it that narcissists can easily fall in love, yet they find it difficult for that love to last?

I am not certain I've ever been in love, not even with my fiance, although I care about him more than I ever thought possible. He's somehow made himself indispensable to me and thats far more than I can say about anyone else I've dated. Because of this, I've decided to write this answer from the perspective I had in the past before I met my fiance because I think it lends a clearer picture of how a Narcissist thinks.I used to trick myself into believing I was hopelessly attached to someone but it was always self deception. Truth is I have the emotional depth of a school girl with a crush. It's really that bad.When I first started dating someone they were like a blank canvas to me. I saw whatever I wanted to see and I tried to convince myself it was the truth. It's easy to get swept away in fantasy when you barely know someone. I wanted so much to maintain those elevated feelings yet it was never meant to be.So I think it's fairly safe to say that I've never once “fallen out of love” with anyone. It was never real to begin with.Thanks for the A2A

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