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GreetingsHere is some information provided on PLAB.PLAB -1Taking PLAB / Examination requirementsILETS TestApplication FormDownload Application FormSample Extended Matching QuestionsSample Single Best Answer QuestionsWhat to study for PLAB?Taking the ExaminationFor the purposes of the PLAB test, one should use the same name, in the same order, as it appears on ones passport. It is important so that all correspondence can be intimated to the candidate promptly.ILETS TestThe exact date the IELTS test was taken and the scores obtained has to be mentioned . One should remember that the certificate is valid for a maximum of two years from the date the IELTS test was taken . If an individual passes in the IELTS test is more than two years old at the time of taking Part 1 of the PLAB test, he / she will need to provide proof that they have actively maintained or tried to improve their English language skills since the time they passed the IELTS tests.The ways in which the above can be done include:1) Proof of having undertaken a postgraduate course of study within the last two years since the IELTS test and original IELTS certificate showing that the required scores have been achieved .or2 ) A reference completed by a UK employer or your personal tutor or lecturer on a postgraduate course of study within the last two years since completion of the first IELTS test. The original IELTS certificate showing that the required scores were achieved also has to be enclosed.or3) Proof that the IELTS test was done again and the required scores were achieved.Application FormIf one does the booking was done online, he / she must pay by debit or credit card, otherwise the fee of £145 must be paid in advance in sterling. Else, fees paid in the United Kingdom must be in the form of a cheque, money order or postal order payable to ‘General Medical Council’. Fees sent from other countries, or paid in other countries, must be by sterling bank draft or money order. These must be made payable to ‘General Medical Council’. Please remember, where appropriate, to take bank charges into account when paying the fee.The form should be checked carefully to ensure that the information is correct, and that the form is signed and dated appropriately. Applications must be completed and signed only by the concerned individual. Any discrepancies may delay ones application.In case the candidate wishes to take the examination in the UK, he /she should submit their forms together with the appropriate enclosures by post to thePLAB Test Section (Candidate Services) GMC,178 Great Portland Street,London W1W 5JE.For those who have applied online, confirmation of one place will be given immediately ,otherwise once the form has been processed, a letter offering you a place in the Examination and a map showing you where the Examination centre is located will be sent to your registered address.In exceptional circumstances, leading to postponement or cancellation of the Examination, the candidates will be entitled to a full refund of the Examination entry fee. The General Medical Council will not be liable for any other costs.What is to be studied for PLAB?The main emphasis of the Examination is on clinical management and includes science as applied to clinical problems.The Examination is confined to core knowledge, skills and attitudes relating to conditions commonly seen by SHOs, to the generic management of life-threatening situations, and to rarer, but important, problems.The Examination assesses the ability to apply knowledge to the care of patients.Four groups of skills will be tested in approximately equal proportions:Diagnosis: Given the important facts about a patient (such as age, sex, nature of presenting symptoms, duration of symptoms) you are asked to select the most likely diagnosis from a range of possibilities.Investigations: This may refer to the selection or the interpretation of diagnostic tests. Given the important facts about a patient, you will be asked to select the investigation which is most likely to provide the key to the diagnosis. Alternatively, you may be given the findings of investigations and asked to relate these to a patient’s condition or to choose the most appropriate next course of action.Management/Treatment: Given the important facts about a patient’s condition, you will be asked to choose the most suitable treatment including therapeutics from a range of possibilities. In the case of medical treatments you will be asked to choose the correct drug therapy and will be expected to know about side effects.The context of clinical practice: This may include:i. Explanation of disease process: The natural history of the untreated disease.ii. Legal ethical: You are expected to know the major legal and ethical principles set out in the General Medical Council publication.iii. Practice of evidence-based medicine: Questions on diagnosis, investigations and management may draw upon recent evidence published in peer-reviewed journals. In addition, there may be questions on the principles and practice of evidence-based medicine.iv. Understanding of epidemiology: You may be tested on the principles of epidemiology, and on the prevalence of important diseases in the UK.v. Health promotion: The prevention of disease through health promotion and knowledge of risk factors.vi. Awareness of multicultural society: You may be tested on your appreciation of the impact on the practice of medicine of the health beliefs and cultural values of the major cultural groups represented in the UK population.vii. Application of scientific understanding to medicine: You may be tested on the scientific disciplines which underpin medicine. Examples include anatomy, genetics and pathology.The candidate will be expected to know about conditions that are common or important in the United Kingdom for all the systems outlined below.Accident and emergency medicine Examples:Abdominal, chest and head injuries (isolated or multiple injuries), bites and stings, bruising, burns, chest pain, collapse, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), eye problems, shock, trauma.Blood attributed diseases (Examples): Anaemias, coagulation defects, haemoglobinopathies, purpura.Cardiovascular system (Examples): Aortic aneurysm, arrhythmias, chest pain, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), heart failure, hypertension, ischaemic limb, myocardial infarction, myocardial ischaemia, stroke, varicose veins.Dermatology, allergy, immunology and infectious diseases (Examples): Allergy, fever and rashes, meningitis, serious infections including HIV, hepatitis B and tropical diseases, skin cancers.ENT and eyes (Examples): Dysphagia, earache, epistaxis, hearing problems, hoarseness, glaucoma, ‘red eye’, sudden visual loss.Gastrointestinal tract, liver and biliary system, and nutrition (Examples): Abdominal pain, constipation, diarrhoea, difficulty in swallowing, digestive disorders, gastrointestinal bleeding, jaundice, rectal bleeding/pain, vomiting, weight problems.Metabolism, endocrinology and diabetes( Examples): Diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, weight problems.Nervous system (Examples): Coma, convulsions, eye problems, headache, loss of consciousness, seizures, stroke, transient ischaemic attacks, vertigo.Orthopaedics and rheumatology( Examples): Arthritis, back pain, dislocations, fractures, joint pain/swelling, sprains and strains.Psychiatry (Examples): Alcohol abuse, anxiety, assessing suicidal risk, confusion and delirium, depression, drug abuse, overdoses and self harm, post-natal problems.Renal System (Examples): Haematuria, renal failure, sexual health, testicular pain, urinary calculi and infections.Respiratory system (Examples): Asthma, breathlessness/wheeze, cough, haemoptysis, pneumonia.Disorders of childhood (Examples): Abdominal pain, asthma, child development, childhood illnesses, earache, epilepsy, eye problems, fetal medicine, fever and rashes, joint pain/swelling, loss of consciousness, meningitis, non-accidental injury, sexual abuse, testicular pain, urinary disorders.Disorders of the elderly (Examples): Altered bowel habit, dementia, depression, digestive disorders, urinary disorders.Peri-operative management (Examples): Anti-emetics, pain relief, peri-operative monitoring, post-operative complications, pre-operative assessment.Palliative Care, Oncology( Examples): Blood dyscrasias, general malignancy, pain relief, terminal care.Taking the ExaminationTravel and accommodation arrangements have to be made by the candidate.Part 1 of the PLAB Test is a three-hour Extended Matching Question (EMQ) examination.The Invigilator’s instructions will take about 30 minutes. The Examination will last three hours and collecting the Examination materials will take a further 30 minutes. The candidate is required to be at the Examination centre for a minimum of four hours.The candidate is expected to carry proof of identity to the Examination centre together with the letter from the General Medical Council or British Council offering them a place in the Examination. These will be checked at the Examination.The Chief Invigilator will take a polaroid photograph of the candidate and will be asked to sign on the back of it to verify its authenticity. If for some reason the candidate fails to comply with this process, they will not be permitted to take the Examination.Every candidate will be provided with all the materials needed during the Examination. No other reference material will be allowed .After the ExaminationMarking of the Exams are computerized.For the first sitting of the Examination, the Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board determined the standard required to pass in accordance with a recognized method of standard setting. This standard is maintained by test equating. This means that the standard for each examination will be the same, but the pass mark may vary, reflecting the difficulty of the questions set in the Examination.Temporary personal circumstances which might affect the candidates performance such as illness, pregnancy or bereavement will not be taken into account.At the end of the Examination, the candidate will be informed the date on which their results will be available. This will be about four weeks after the examination. Results will be published on the website and a letter containing the results will be posted about two weeks later to the candidates address.On passing part –1 of the PLAB examination the candidate can apply online immediately to take Part 2 of the test .If the candidate fails in the first attempt he /she may re-apply. However one cannot apply for PLAB Part 2 or re-apply for Part 1 before any previous PLAB examination results have been issued.The results will include information about your position in relation to the pass mark and the performance of the other candidates.Candidates wishing to verify any mark or marks, by means of a clerical check, should submit a request in writing to the PLAB Test Section no later than three weeks after the results have been issued. A fee of £40 must accompany the request.The check will be done at the earliest and a response will be issued within 10 working days.A candidate who wishes to make a complaint about the examination should submit a detailed written report to the Head of the PLAB Test Section no later than three weeks after the results have been issued.The individual should provide their name, address, telephone number and GMC reference number.The complaint will be acknowledge and investigated and a response will be sent within 10 working days.However the candidate cannot make an appeal against the mark they receive for the Examination. The examiners’ decision is final.

Hey,For all Permanent Commission entries and Short Service Commission entries there is no written examination. These applications are short listed as per the criteria laid down by the Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower Planning & Recruitment. Selection is through merit alone.You can apply for Permanent Commission(Logistics)CRITERIAB.E/B. Tech in any discipline,Minimum (%)-first classAge -191/2 - 25 YrsSELECTION PROCEDURE(a) The candidates will be issued call up for Services Selection Board (SSB) based on their performance in Degree Course. If a candidate possesses higher qualification with better percentage, his higher qualification will be considered for cut off. Integrated Headquarters, Ministry of Defence (Navy) reserves the right to shortlist applications and to fix cut off percentage. No communication will be entertained on this account. SSB interviews for short listed candidates will be scheduled at Bangalore/Bhopal/Coimbatore/Visakhapatnam.(b) Shortlisted candidates will be informed about their selection for SSB interview on their E-mail or through SMS (provided by candidate in their application form).(c) SSB interview will be conducted in two Stages. Stage I test consisting of intelligence test, Picture Perception and Discussion test. Candidates who fail to qualify in Stage I will be routed back on the same day. Stage II tests comprising of Psychological testing, Group testing and Interview which will last for 04 days. Successful candidates will thereafter undergo Medical Examination (approx duration 03-05 days).(d) Candidates recommended by the SSBs and declared medically fit, will be appointed for training in order of All India Merit depending on the number of vacancies.(e) Change of SSB venue for interview is not permissible.(f) Any correspondence regarding change of SSB dates be addressed to the Call up Officer of the concerned SSB on receipt of call up letter. Award of fresh dates for SSB would be subject to availability.(g) No compensation will be paid in respect of any injury sustained as a result of tests.(h) Return 3rd AC rail fare is admissible for the SSB interview, if appearing for the first time for this entry.HOW TO APPLYCandidate can submit only Online (e-application) for this entry Online (e-application). Whilst filling up the e-application, it is advisable to keep the relevant documents readily available to enable the following:- (a) Correct filling up of personal particulars. Details are to be filled up as given in the Matriculation Certificate (b) Fields such as e-mail address, mobile number are mandatory fields and need to be filled.Filling up of e-application: - For filling up application Online visit the website Join Indian NAvy and proceed as follows:- (a) Click on the ‘Officer Entry’ button under the option 'Apply Online' on the Home Page. (b) Fill the online registration form. Tips to assist in filling up fields have been provided as you highlight each field. (c) After filling the form click on Preview and check if all the information entered by you is correct. (d) Before clicking the Print Application button it should be checked whether all the details entered in the form is correct as you will not be able to make any corrections after saving the record. Candidates can take the print of the application form by entering the relevant details. (e) Before clicking the instructions for SSB Button, it should be checked whether all the details entered in the form are correct as you will not be able to make any corrections after saving the record. Candidates can read the instructions on conduct of SSB by clicking on the instruction for SSB button and can take the print of the application form by entering the details from the download sections under officer entry. (f)Print two copies of the online Application Form having the system generated Application Number. (g) Paste recent passport size colour photograph at the space provided and self attest the same. (h)One copy of this Application Form is to be duly signed and mailed (posted) to Post Box No. 04, R K Puram Main PO, New Delhi - 110 066 along with the following documents:- Self attested photograph, Self attested photo copies of 10th & 12th class certificates along with Mark Sheets, other educational certificates and mark sheets of all semester/years. In case CGPA, candidate is required to attach certificate issued by the University for Conversion of CGPA in to percentage. Application to be sent by ordinary post only. Speed post/courier and Registered post will not be accepted. (j) A superscription is to be made on envelope: ONLINE APPLICATION NO. ________ APPLICATION for PC (Log)/SSC (Log & NAIC) JAN 2017 COURSE Qualification______ Percentage _____%. NCC ‘C’ Yes/No. Application and requisite enclosures must be properly tagged/stapled; IHQ MoD (Navy) will not be responsible for loss of enclosures, if sent loose.2. You can also get through the Graduate Special Entry Scheme- (GSES). It is through UPSC.CRITERIAB.Sc(Physics & Maths) / B.E.(Any Discipline)Age:-19-22 yearsUnion Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts Combined Defence Services (CDS) Examination for recruitment of various vacancies under Indian Naval Academy twice a year.UPSC Selection Procedure consists of three stages.1. Written Exam2. Interview/ Intelligence Test/ Personality Test3. Document Verification4. Medical Examination1. Written Exam:i. Written Exam consists of Objective Type questions and time duration 2hrs and maximum marks is 100 for each subject.ii. For the candidates who are appearing for Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air force Academy written test comprising of English, General Knowledge and Elementary mathematics subjects and for candidates who are appearing for officers training academy the written test comprising of English and General Knowledge.iii. Candidates who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference, by the respective service HQ.2. Interview/ Personality Test: The candidates who are selected in written test are called for interview. The SSB procedure consists of two stage selection process-Stage I and Stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for Stage II.a. Stage I comprises of Officers Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception Description Test (P&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in QIR Test and PP and DT.b. Stage II comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officers Tasks, Psychology Tests and the conference. These testes are conducted over 4 days .The personality of candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. the interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no seperate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test.3. Document Verification: Document Verification will be conducted only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.4. Medical Examination: A Candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Women candidates will undergo Medical Examination by a Medical Board comprising male/ female doctors/ specialists/ Gynaecologist. There will be a Lady Medical Officer as member of Board. Only those candidates will be admitted to the Academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board.3. You can also apply through NCC Special Entry Naval Academy, Goa.B.Sc(Physics and Math.) or BE and Naval Wing, Senior Division, NCC 'C' CertificateAge:-19-22 yrsUniversity graduates possessing NCC 'C' certificate with minimum 'B' grading and 50% marks in the graduation degree examination are inducted in the navy as regular commissioned officers. These graduates are exempted from appearing in the CDSE conducted by the UPSC and are selected through the SSB interview only. They join the Naval Academy for NOC along with the CDSE cadets.4. You can also apply through University Entry Scheme (SSC)-Final year engineering students are eligible for induction into the technical Branches/ Cadres of the navy. Naval selection teams from the IHQ of MoD (Navy) and Command Headquarters visit AICTE approved Engineering colleges across the country to shortlist the candidates. The short listed candidates, based on all India Merit, are called for interview at the Services Selection Board. The successful candidates, thereafter, are put through the medical tests. Final selection is based on all India merit on the basis of marks obtained in the SSB interviews.Age:-19.5 -25(Pre-Final year), 19 – 24(Final year)Educational Qualifications. Applicant should be studying in the final year (4th / 5th year) in an AICTE recognised university with one of the following disciplines and should have obtained a minimum of 60 % aggregate marks (till VIth semester for BE/BTech and VIII semester for 5 years Integrated Degree CourseSelection ProcedureThe eligible candidates will appear before a Naval Campus Selection Team for interview. The candidates qualifying the campus interview will be shortlisted for SSB interview based on the merit.There is no written examination for the Non-UPSC entries. In this case the applications are invited and short listed at Integrated Headquarters of the Ministry of Defence (Navy) [IHQ of MoD (Navy)] on the basis of marks secured in the qualifying educational exams ie 10+2, Graduate or Post graduate. The short listed candidates are sent for SSB interviews. Thereafter, a merit list, comprising of qualified candidates, is prepared as per the availability of vacancies.Interview & SelectionThe SSB selection consist of a 5 days testing schedule that has 5 stages. The following documents should be presented while attending SSB interviews.Original Matric, BE/B Tech degree certificate/ mark sheet.Ten passport size un-attested photographs.One pair white PT shoes, two pairs each white socks, white shorts, white T-shirts and two pairs of formal trousers & shirts (any sober colour)Copy of the telegram/ print out of the relevant webpage.Risk certificate duly signed by parent/ guardian to state "candidate (name) attending SSB with parent's/ guardian's consent and at his own risk. Parent/guardian is not entitled to claim any compensation or relief from government for injury sustained during SSB interview"Stage I (Day 1) - Stage I selection system includesOfficer Intelligence Rating Test (OIRT).Picture Perception and Description Test (PDPT):Picture is flashed for 30 Seconds. The candidate have to broadly note down seven basic parameters viz number of characters, age, sex, mood, action relating to past, present and future for each character in one minute.Discussion of the Picture - 30 Minutes.In this phase batch is divided into different groups. Strength of group is around 15 candidates. Each candidate narrates his individual written story verbatim. Subsequently, in Part - II all the candidates have to come to discuss amongst themselves and achieve a common consensus about the characters and theme of the story. Once all candidates have undergone this stage the results for stage one testing are declared. Successful candidates are retained for stage - II testing and the balance are asked to leave after a short brief on general shortcomings.Stage-II (Day -2) - In the IInd Stage, Psychological Tests are performed that includes :Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)12 Pictures including one blank are shown for 30 sec each. Candidates are asked to write a story around what led to the situation? What is going on and what would be the outcome? Picture is shown for 30 seconds and they are asked to write it in 4 minutes. In the blank slide, they have to think a picture of their own choice and to write a story around that.Word Association Test (WAT)In this test, a series of 60 words are shown to the candidates one after another for 15 seconds each. The candidate is required to write down the first thought or idea comes to his mind.Situation Reaction Test (SRT)This test consists of 60 routine life situations regarding day to day activities. The situations are printed in a booklet and the candidate is asked to write his reactions by completing the sentences, as to how they would feel, think and act up these situations.Self Description-15 Mins.Candidate is asked to write five separate paragraphs on each context about the opinion of his parents/guardian, friends, teachers/ superiors.Stage III (Day 3) - Stage III selection process includes :Group DiscussionTwo topics of common interest (social issues and current events) are discussed. It is an informal discussion and not a debate. Each topic is allotted 20 minutes each. No definite conclusion is required to be deduced.Group Planning Exercise (GPE)It comprises of five stages viz, explanation of the model, reading of the narrative by GTO, five minutes for self reading by candidates, 10 minutes for individual written solutions and 20 minutes for group discussion. Narration of the group solution and definite conclusion is required.Progressive Group Tasks (PGT)It is the first outdoor task. A set of four obstacles with progressively increasing level of difficulties are to be completed in 40 to 50 minutes. Structures, helping material and load are provided to the group.Group Obstacle Race (GOR)In this task the group is pitched against each other over a set of six obstacles with a snake like load to carry.Half Group Task (HGT)It has one obstacle similar to progressive group task with helping material and load to be carried. Group is divided into two Sub Groups and assigned the same obstacle in turn in such a way that when one group is working, the other is not allowed to watch it. Time allotted to each sub group is 15 minutes.LecturetteIt is an individual task and the candidate is required to give a short talk to the group. Three minutes are allowed to prepare any chosen topic from the four given in the Lecturette Cards for the talk.Stage IV (Day 4) - Stage IV selection process includes :Individual ObstaclesA Set of 10 obstacles is set to be tackled individually. Obstacles are numbered from one to ten, denoting the points each one carries. Each individual will be given three minutes.Command TaskEach individual is nominated as commander for one task consisting of one obstacle similar to the Progressive Group Task Time given is 15 minutes.Final Group TaskTask consisting of one obstacle similar to the progressive group task. Time given to complete this task is 15-20 minutes.Personal interviews are conducted by Interviewing Officer (IO) from Day 2 to Day 4Stage V (Day 5) - Stage V includes :Closing address by Deputy President of the BoardConferenceAnnouncement of resultsDispersalThe candidates recommended by Service Selection Board (SSB) has to undergo a medical examination at nearest Service Hospitals. The medical examination procedure for candidates is as follow :• Special Medical Board (SMB)Special Medical Board (SMB) of officer candidates will be held at designated hospitals over duration of five to six days. Candidates will be declared Fit/ Temporary Unfit or Permanent Unfit. Candidates declared Temporary Unfit are to report back to the hospital for examination after the specified time. Candidates who still do not qualify will be declared Permanent Unfit.• Appeal Medical Board (AMB)Candidates who are declared Permanent Unfit by Special Medical Board are eligible for Appeal Medical Board after depositing a sum of a requisite amount in the Government Treasury. No fees will be charged from Temporarily Unfit candidates. Unfit candidates get a maximum of 42 days to report for AMB at designated Command Hospital. Candidates declared unfit by Appeal Medical Board are eligible to appeal for Review Medical Board.• Review Medical Board (RMB)The President of Appeal Medical Board will intimate the candidate, the reason of his/ her unfitness through a leaflet and guide him / her for Review Medical Board. However, he will explain to the candidate that holding of the Review Medical Board is at the discretion of DGMS(Navy) and DGAFMS based on the merits of the case and it is not his/her right. RMBs are conducted at Army Research & Referral Hospital Delhi and Armed Force Medical College Pune.The selected Officer candidates, inducted into the Indian Navy under various schemes are given basic training at Naval Academy Ezhimala (NAVAC). The period of initial training for cadet entry and direct entry graduate candidates is 4 years and 22 weeks respectively. Branch specific training is subsequently imparted at other naval establishments.Good Luck.Cheers.:)

This answer may contain sensitive images. Click on an image to unblur it.I can do it in 3:Repeal the Gun-Free School Zones Act.It’s a bad joke. It has zero deterrent effect to would-be mass shooters, and in fact there’s plenty of credence to the theory that mass shooters specifically target places where they know people are unlikely to have weapons (whether because they’re banned by law or simply because people who frequent those kinds of places don’t tend to bring guns).Actual gun free zones exist in this country. They’re very easy to identify:You want a gun-free zone, this is how you get one. Nobody gets past this checkpoint with a gun without alerting the entire venue’s security forces, bringing lots of guys in ballistic vests with automatic weapons to the breach point in seconds, not minutes.If you don’t have the money for this, then you crowdsource your security, by not forcing people who carry guns for their own defense to disarm. Then, those people, should a problem arise, will take care of it for you.This:… has absolutely no effect on the people it is intended to. Mass shooters walk right on by; the Parkland shooter isn’t even charged with the gun-free zone violation, because the 17 counts of premeditated murder are a bit more pertinent. Students who bring guns to schools and don’t shoot anyone are charged as juveniles; gun possession is not a violent crime and therefore most state statutes disallow prosecuting a minor as an adult. So the student gets expelled, finishes their high school education from juvie (or not), and either moves on from their mistake or continues their criminal path. Either way, the sign, and the criminal penalties, are comparable to most state penalties for underage possession, whether at a school or not.Outlaw discretionary-issue criteria and minimize application costs for firearm ownership/carry permits.I won’t go so far as to say the permits themselves need to go away; I think they have value in establishing that the people who carry guns are law-abiding, educated as to firearms law and proficient with their weapon. However, they’re too often used to prevent firearms carry and even ownership, whether by allowing the permitting agency or local law enforcement to deny the application “because we said so”, or by making it so expensive to obtain one that the average person either can’t afford it or doesn’t bother.My own state of Texas used to be one of the bad actors; from the inception of the CHL program, a first-time application cost $140, and required an 8-hour class that cost about as much. By application cost alone, as of 2015 the state had the third-highest cost for a shall-issue license, after Illinois and Arkansas. Add in the average course cost and that went to second place behind a state that only has a shall-issue system because Seventh Circuit forced it to. In Sept 2017, that cost was reduced to $40, plus the education course which is now only 4 hours, and costs as little as $60. It is now cheaper all-told to get your LTC than the application fee used to be.And we haven’t even discussed the king of “no way no how”, New York City. In a city of 8 million people, only 44,000 active firearm permits exist (0.5%; one-tenth the average rate of concealed carry permit holders nationwide), most of them for the wealthy elite and their security staff. Just to legally possess a handgun in the City, even unloaded, cased and locked, you need a permit. In addition to the $435 application fee and $95 fingerprinting fee (Texas does it digitally for $10 for their LTCs), the cost of all the paperwork you must produce to submit alongside the application can be staggering; you need a business license, 7-year residential history, medical history including a list of all medications you are taking, an agreement from any roommates that you should have the permit or an affidavit that you live alone, a list of character references, and a host of other documentation. And that’s just the first round; they can and will ask for more, before they say “nope, you don’t have good cause to get one, denied”.This changes. No “good cause” requirements, no local police signoff, and if the permit application costs more than a driver license in the same state, the cost of the permit approval process must be accounted for on an itemized, allocated basis annually to justify the cost charged.Universalize background checks with a web/smartphone app to allow background checks on the spot.You didn’t think gun rights advocates were going to get it all their own way? I see value in background checks. The problem is the current system is so full of holes it’s no wonder criminals don’t have much trouble getting around them. Universalizing background checks gives the average private seller a way (and a responsibility) to be as sure as an FFL can be that the person they’re selling a gun to is legit. The issue is that the UBC law cannot do any of three things that most proposals end up relying on:Centralization of transfer records - That is, for all intents and purposes, a registry of gun owners. Illegal under the Federal FOPA, but most states that have assault weapon registries or DROS systems just give that law a middle finger anyway.Reliance on FFLs - There are only 130,000-odd FFLs in the entire country, and they’re not all consumer retailers with brick and mortar storefronts to walk into. The country’s 70 million gun owners cannot be stacked 50 deep in their closest gun store filling out the forms for a temporary transfer of one of their rifles to a nephew or neighbor to go hunting in November.Use of existing Form 4473 by private sellers - Take a look at it for yourself here; the information you are required to provide on a 4473, especially to avoid the three-day delay if you have a common name, is identity theft on a silver platter. More than enough to apply for a credit card in the buyer’s name. As the buyer, if the UBC system used the existing 4473, private sales would be effectively banned because nobody would trust a perfect stranger from GunBroker not only to safeguard that form for 20 years, but to not misuse the date themselves in that time.It can be done; I’ve detailed a system in previous answers that avoids all three of these while still producing a valid, verifiable, impossible-to-fake record of the background check and sale, using a digital signature system and REAL ID-compliant “document discriminator” numbers. The authenticity of the record of sale can be independently verified with just the information on the form and a public-key signature algorithm, so the government retains no record of the check or transfer to verify the document is legit, the seller only has to verify the identity of the buyer with a REAL ID compliant ID card (which all driver licenses will be by 2020), and the identifying information actually printed on the form is a name, address and DL number, plus info about the firearm that was sold, which is not even enough to “replay” the check fraudulently for another firearm (you have to enter the ID’s audit number, and those are unique to every issued card and not reproduced on the record of sale). In the form of a smartphone app, or a web app, it would be easier to use, and harder to spoof, than the existing NICS system.What’s the benefit? If properly enforced, you’ll quickly find and shut down the chronic straw-buyers responsible for the majority of trafficking of illegally-possessed weapons. When the penalty for not using this very easy system is 10 years in prison, you’re going to see halfway-decent compliance.There. Pass those three laws, and enforce them, and you’ll see gun violence and mass shootings go way down. Zero? No. Not even countries like the UK or Australia have seen zero mass shootings after passing near-total bans. But you will make a big difference.