Declaration Of Authorship: Fill & Download for Free

Selection of Timothy Matlack’s handwriting, from a 1761 letter to Haydock Bowne. AHMC – Matlack, TimothyYou would think this would be an easy answer. But it is not!“It sounds like an easy question, right? Well, Thomas Jefferson certainly wrote it — in terms of authorship. But do you know whose hand it was that literally produced the famous handwritten copy? If you’re not sure, don’t worry, historians aren’t completely certain either. That said, there is consensus that it was “probably” Timothy Matlack, of Pennsylvania. Matlack had been appointed clerk to the secretary of the Second Continental Congress, Charles Thomson, a little over a year before the Declaration. Incidentally, he also wrote George Washington’s 1775 commission.“Engraving of Timothy Matlack by Samuel Sartain, after Charles W. Peale. PR 52, Portrait File“Anyway, Matlack’s document is usually referred to as the “engrossed” copy. If you’ve never heard the term, it is commonly used to describe official, often legal, documents such as deeds and commissions. More specifically, it denotes a document written in a clear, formal hand, meant to be the authoritative copy. And authoritative the engrossed Declaration is. But it’s a minor detail, often overlooked, that the iconic, physical artifact itself was not itself produced on July 4, 1776.”“If your history is a little rusty, the New York delegation, it so happens, abstained from the voting while awaiting their instructions. So technically, from July 4th only 12 of the 13 colonies had actually voted for the Declaration until July 9th when New York officially approved it. Only on the 19th did Congress ultimately order the engrossed copy, and nearly two weeks passed before Congress actually signed Matlack’s copy on August 2nd.”AttributionWho wrote the Declaration of Independence? | New-York Historical Societyhttps://www.archives.gov/founding-docs/declaration-historyhttps://www.surfnetkids.com/independenceday/261/who-wrote-the-declaration-of-independence/

Two claims are made in this question.Both are false.First, the Council of Nicaea did not declare that Jesus was the Christ—this was already believed by all Christians and had been declared by Scripture as early as the Pauline Epistles in the range of 50–60 A.D. (generally regarded as the first texts of the New Testament, in chronological order of authorship).Rather, the Council of Nicaea determined that that Jesus is fully divine from eternity, not a mere creation of the Father.Second, Matthew 24:5 reads as follows:For many will come in my name, saying, ‘I am the Christ,’ and they will lead many astray.Now, it is true that “quotation marks” do not exist in Koine Greek. But the context of the verse leaves no room to say that Jesus really means, “People will say that I, Jesus, am the Christ, which will lead people astray (because I’m really not).”Rather, He is saying, “When the end of days comes, many people will falsely claim to be Me, but don’t be fooled, for when I truly do return, there will be no need for anyone to say so—everyone in the world will know.”Then if any one says to you, ‘Lo, here is the Christ!’ or ‘There he is!’ do not believe it. For false Christs and false prophets will arise and show great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the elect. Lo, I have told you beforehand. So, if they say to you, ‘Lo, he is in the wilderness,’ do not go out; if they say, ‘Lo, he is in the inner rooms,’ do not believe it. For as the lightning comes from the east and shines as far as the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.—Matthew 24:24–27Original Question:“Matthew 24:5 Jesus said that he is not Christ. Why did the Council of Nicaea make him Jesus Christ?”

In answer to your direct question; yes, many of us do (though we don’t always understand each other).Why? First and foremost because Norwegian, Danish and Swedish are somewhat alike in vocabulary - though spoken and spelled different from each other.Secondary because the three Scandinavian countries have an agreement ("The declaration of Nordic language politics") that dictates, that all pupils/students should be taught to understand their Scandinavian neighbor languages in writing and speech.Though the educational systems in each of the Scandinavian countries are not obliged by law to partake in this neighbor language teaching, a serious cooperation between the education governments is going on, which helps the declaration come alive.An example of this fellowship in Nordic countries is this website: NIS (“The Nordic Countries in School”), which help and inspires teachers across Scandinavia to teach this.As I work as a teacher in Denmark, each year I present something Swedish or Norwegian to my students. We read poems in Norwegian or Swedish or maybe compare the different translations on novels we read. We might watch some YouTube-clips with Norwegian comedians Ylvis or maybe study the authorship of Swedens' Astrid Lindgren with extracts in the original writing. This year my fourth grade Danish class read Ronja Robbersdaughter in Danish but saw the movie adaption in the original Swedish with no subtitles. What an amazing experience!The ones who regularly speak with other Scandinavians, quickly learn to speak slowly, avoid hard-to-understand-words and such. So even though we don't learn to speak the other languages, we are taught to understand them and many of us adapt our communications to match the other part of our conversation. As mentioned in the comments, many of us will start in our native tongue but will eventually later switch to English here and there whenever too many words are not understood by one or the other part.However, as the English language has gained greater exposure in everyday use, especially for young people, the trend might be in the future that English will be used more frequently as a common language.