Table Of Contents D--Fiscal Management: Fill & Download for Free

This is going to be basically a cut and paste of the table of contents for said bill.H. R. 1319AN ACTTo provide for reconciliation pursuant to title II of S. Con. Res. 5.Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled,SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.This Act may be cited as the “American Rescue Plan Act of 2021”.SEC. 2. TABLE OF CONTENTS.The table of contents for this Act is as follows:Sec. 1. Short title.Sec. 2. Table of contents.TITLE I—COMMITTEE ON AGRICULTURESubtitle A—AgricultureSec. 1001. Food Supply Chain and Agriculture Pandemic Response.Sec. 1002. Emergency rural development grants for rural health care.Sec. 1003. Pandemic program administration funds.Sec. 1004. Funding for the USDA Office of Inspector General for oversight of COVID–19-related programs.Sec. 1005. Farm loan assistance for socially disadvantaged farmers and ranchers.Sec. 1006. USDA assistance and support for socially disadvantaged farmers, ranchers, forest land owners and operators, and groups.Sec. 1007. Use of the Commodity Credit Corporation for Commodities and Associated Expenses.Subtitle B—NutritionSec. 1101. Supplemental nutrition assistance program.Sec. 1102. Additional assistance for SNAP online purchasing and technology improvements.Sec. 1103. Additional funding for nutrition assistance programs.Sec. 1104. Commodity supplemental food program.TITLE II—COMMITTEE ON EDUCATION AND LABORSubtitle A—Education MattersPART 1—DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATIONSec. 2001. Elementary and secondary school emergency relief fund.Sec. 2002. Higher education emergency relief fund.Sec. 2003. Maintenance of effort and maintenance of equity.Sec. 2004. Outlying areas.Sec. 2005. Bureau of Indian Education.Sec. 2006. Gallaudet University.Sec. 2007. Student aid administration.Sec. 2008. Howard University.Sec. 2009. National Technical Institute for the Deaf.Sec. 2010. Institute of Education Sciences.Sec. 2011. Program administration.Sec. 2012. Office of inspector general.Sec. 2013. Modification of revenue requirements for proprietary institutions of higher education.PART 2—MISCELLANEOUSSec. 2021. National endowment for the arts.Sec. 2022. National endowment for the humanities.Sec. 2023. Institute of museum and library services.Sec. 2024.  COVID-19 response resources for the preservation and maintenance of Native American languages.SubtitleB—Labor MattersSec. 2101. Raising the Federal minimum wage.Sec. 2102. Funding for Department of Labor Worker Protection Activities.Sec. 2103. Compensation pursuant to the Longshore and Harbor Workers’ Compensation Act.Subtitle C—Human Services And Community SupportsSec. 2201. Supporting older Americans and their families.Sec. 2202. Child Care and Development Block Grant Program.Sec. 2203. Child Care Stabilization.Sec. 2204. Head Start.Sec. 2205. Programs for survivors.Sec. 2206. Child abuse prevention and treatment.Sec. 2207. Corporation for National and Community Service and the National Service Trust.Subtitle D—Child Nutrition & Related ProgramsSec. 2301. Improvements to WIC benefits.Sec. 2302. WIC program modernization.Sec. 2303. Meals and supplements reimbursements for individuals who have not attained the age of 25.Sec. 2304. Pandemic EBT program.Subtitle E—COBRA Continuation CoverageSec. 2401. Preserving health benefits for workers.TITLE III—COMMITTEE ON ENERGY AND COMMERCESubtitle A—Public HealthCHAPTER 1—VACCINES AND THERAPEUTICSSec. 3001. Funding for COVID–19 vaccine activities at the centers for disease control and prevention.Sec. 3002. Funding for vaccine confidence activities.Sec. 3003. Funding for supply chain for COVID–19 vaccines, therapeutics, and medical supplies.Sec. 3004. Funding for COVID–19 vaccine, therapeutic, and device activities at the Food and Drug Administration.CHAPTER 2—TESTINGSec. 3011. Funding for COVID–19 testing, contact tracing, and mitigation activities.Sec. 3012. Funding for SARS–CoV–2 genomic sequencing and surveillance.Sec. 3013. Funding for global health.Sec. 3014. Funding for data modernization and forecasting center.CHAPTER 3—PUBLIC HEALTH WORKFORCESec. 3021. Funding for public health workforce.Sec. 3022. Funding for Medical Reserve Corps.CHAPTER 4—PUBLIC HEALTH INVESTMENTSSec. 3031. Funding for community health centers and community care.Sec. 3032. Funding for National Health Service Corps.Sec. 3033. Funding for Nurse Corps.Sec. 3034. Funding for teaching health centers that operate graduate medical education.Sec. 3035. Funding for family planning.Sec. 3036. Funding for Office of Inspector General.CHAPTER 5—INDIAN HEALTHSec. 3041. Funding for Indian health.CHAPTER 6—MENTAL HEALTH AND SUBSTANCE USE DISORDERSec. 3051. Funding for block grants for community mental health services.Sec. 3052. Funding for block grants for prevention and treatment of substance abuse.Sec. 3053. Funding for mental and behavioral health training for health care professionals, paraprofessionals, and public safety officers.Sec. 3054. Funding for education and awareness campaign encouraging healthy work conditions and use of mental and behavioral health services by health care professionals.Sec. 3055. Funding for grants for health care providers to promote mental and behavioral health among their health professional workforce.Sec. 3056. Funding for community-based funding for local substance use disorder services.Sec. 3057. Funding for community-based funding for local behavioral health needs.Sec. 3058. Funding for the National Child Traumatic Stress Network.Sec. 3059. Funding for Project AWARE.Sec. 3059A. Funding for youth suicide prevention.Sec. 3059B. Funding for behavioral health workforce education and training.CHAPTER 7—EXCHANGE GRANT PROGRAMSec. 3061. Establishing a grant program for Exchange modernization.Subtitle B—MedicaidSec. 3101. Mandatory coverage of COVID–19 vaccines and administration and treatment under Medicaid.Sec. 3102. Modifications to certain coverage under Medicaid for pregnant and postpartum women.Sec. 3103. State Option to Provide Qualifying Community-Based Mobile Crisis Intervention Services.Sec. 3104. Temporary increase in FMAP for medical assistance under State Medicaid plans which begin to expend amounts for certain mandatory individuals.Sec. 3105. Extension of 100 percent Federal medical assistance percentage to Urban Indian Health Organizations and Native Hawaiian Health Care Systems.Sec. 3106. Sunset of limit on maximum rebate amount for single source drugs and innovator multiple source drugs.Sec. 3107. Additional support for Medicaid home and community-based services during the COVID–19 emergency.Sec. 3108. Funding for State strike teams for resident and employee safety in nursing facilities.Sec. 3109. Special Rule for the Period of a Declared Public Health Emergency Related to Coronavirus.Subtitle C—Children’s Health Insurance ProgramSec. 3201. Mandatory coverage of COVID–19 vaccines and administration and treatment under CHIP.Sec. 3202. Modifications to certain coverage under CHIP for pregnant and postpartum women.Subtitle D—Other ProvisionsCHAPTER 1—ENSURING ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH AND RATEPAYER PROTECTION DURING THE PANDEMICSec. 3301. Funding for pollution and disparate impacts of the COVID–19 pandemic.Sec. 3302. Funding for LIHEAP.Sec. 3303. Funding for water assistance program.CHAPTER 2—DISTANCE LEARNING AND CONSUMER PROTECTION DURING THE COVID–19 PANDEMICSec. 3311. Funding for consumer product safety fund to protect consumers from potentially dangerous products related to COVID–19.Sec. 3312. Funding for E-Rate support for emergency educational connections and devices.CHAPTER 3—OVERSIGHT OF DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE PREVENTION AND RESPONSE TO COVID–19Sec. 3321. Funding for Department of Commerce Inspector General.TITLE IV—COMMITTEE ON FINANCIAL SERVICESSubtitle A—Defense Production Act Of 1950Sec. 4001. COVID–19 emergency medical supplies enhancement.Subtitle B—Housing ProvisionsSec. 4101. Emergency rental assistance.Sec. 4102. Emergency housing vouchers.Sec. 4103. Emergency assistance for rural housing.Sec. 4104. Housing assistance and supportive services programs for Native Americans.Sec. 4105. Housing counseling.Sec. 4106. Homelessness assistance and supportive services program.Sec. 4107. Homeowner Assistance Fund.Sec. 4108. Relief measures for section 502 and 504 direct loan borrowers.Sec. 4109. Fair housing activities.Subtitle C—Small Business (SSBCI)Sec. 4201. State Small Business Credit Initiative.Subtitle D—AirlinesSec. 4301. Air Transportation Payroll Support Program Extension.TITLE V—COMMITTEE ON OVERSIGHT AND REFORMSubtitle A—Coronavirus State And Local Fiscal Recovery FundsSec. 5001. Coronavirus State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds.Subtitle B—Other MattersSec. 5111. Emergency Federal Employee Leave Fund.Sec. 5112. Funding for the Government Accountability Office.Sec. 5113. Pandemic Response Accountability Committee funding availability.Sec. 5114. Funding for the White House.TITLE VI—COMMITTEE ON SMALL BUSINESSSec. 6001. Modifications to paycheck protection program.Sec. 6002. Targeted EIDL advance.Sec. 6003. Support for restaurants.Sec. 6004. Community navigator pilot program.Sec. 6005. Shuttered venue operators.Sec. 6006. Direct appropriations.TITLE VII—COMMITTEE ON TRANSPORTATION AND INFRASTRUCTURESubtitle A—Transportation And InfrastructureSec. 7001. Federal Emergency Management Agency appropriation.Sec. 7002. Funeral assistance.Sec. 7003. Economic adjustment assistance.Sec. 7004. Great Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation operations and maintenance.Sec. 7005. Grants to the National Railroad Passenger Corporation.Sec. 7006. Federal Transit Administration grants.Sec. 7007. Relief for airports.Sec. 7008. Emergency FAA Employee Leave Fund.Subtitle B—Aviation Manufacturing Jobs ProtectionSec. 7101. Definitions.Sec. 7102. Payroll support program.Subtitle C—Continued Assistance To Rail WorkersSec. 7201. Additional enhanced benefits under the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act.Sec. 7202. Extended unemployment benefits under the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act.Sec. 7203. Extension of waiver of the 7-day waiting period for benefits under the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act.Sec. 7204. Railroad Retirement Board and Office of the Inspector General funding.TITLE VIII—COMMITTEE ON VETERANS’ AFFAIRSSec. 8001. Funding for claims and appeals processing.Sec. 8002. Funding availability for medical care and health needs.Sec. 8003. Funding for supply chain modernization.Sec. 8004. Funding for state homes.Sec. 8005. Funding for the Department of Veterans Affairs office of inspector general.Sec. 8006. Covid–19 veteran rapid retraining assistance program.Sec. 8007. Prohibition on copayments and cost sharing for veterans during emergency relating to COVID–19.Sec. 8008. Emergency Department of Veterans Affairs Employee Leave Fund.TITLE IX—COMMITTEE ON WAYS AND MEANSSubtitle A—Crisis Support For Unemployed WorkersPART 1—EXTENSION OF CARES ACT UNEMPLOYMENT PROVISIONSSec. 9011. Extension of pandemic unemployment assistance.Sec. 9012. Extension of emergency unemployment relief for governmental entities and nonprofit organizations.Sec. 9013. Extension of Federal Pandemic Unemployment Compensation.Sec. 9014. Extension of full Federal funding of the first week of compensable regular unemployment for States with no waiting week.Sec. 9015. Extension of emergency State staffing flexibility.Sec. 9016. Extension of Pandemic Emergency Unemployment Compensation.Sec. 9017. Extension of temporary financing of short-time compensation payments in States with programs in law.Sec. 9018. Extension of temporary financing of short-time compensation agreements for States without programs in law.PART 2—EXTENSION OF FFCRA UNEMPLOYMENT PROVISIONSSec. 9021. Extension of temporary assistance for States with advances.Sec. 9022. Extension of full Federal funding of extended unemployment compensation.PART 3—DEPARTMENT OF LABOR FUNDING FOR TIMELY, ACCURATE, AND EQUITABLE PAYMENTSec. 9031. Funding for administration.Sec. 9032. Funding for fraud prevention, equitable access, and timely payment to eligible workers.Subtitle B—Emergency Assistance To Families Through Home Visiting ProgramsSec. 9101. Emergency assistance to families through home visiting programs.Subtitle C—Emergency Assistance To Children And FamiliesSec. 9201. Pandemic Emergency Assistance.Subtitle D—Elder Justice And Support GuaranteeSec. 9301. Additional funding for aging and disability services programs.Subtitle E—Support To Skilled Nursing Facilities In Response To COVID–19Sec. 9401. Providing for infection control support to skilled nursing facilities through contracts with quality improvement organizations.Sec. 9402. Funding for strike teams for resident and employee safety in skilled nursing facilities.Subtitle F—Preserving Health Benefits For WorkersSec. 9501. Preserving health benefits for workers.Subtitle G—Promoting Economic SecurityPART 1—2021 RECOVERY REBATES TO INDIVIDUALSSec. 9601. 2021 recovery rebates to individuals.PART 2—CHILD TAX CREDITSec. 9611. Child tax credit improvements for 2021.Sec. 9612. Application of child tax credit in possessions.PART 3—EARNED INCOME TAX CREDITSec. 9621. Strengthening the earned income tax credit for individuals with no qualifying children.Sec. 9622. Taxpayer eligible for childless earned income credit in case of qualifying children who fail to meet certain identification requirements.Sec. 9623. Credit allowed in case of certain separated spouses.Sec. 9624. Modification of disqualified investment income test.Sec. 9625. Application of earned income tax credit in possessions of the United States.Sec. 9626. Temporary special rule for determining earned income for purposes of earned income tax credit.PART 4—DEPENDENT CARE ASSISTANCESec. 9631. Refundability and enhancement of child and dependent care tax credit.Sec. 9632. Increase in exclusion for employer-provided dependent care assistance.PART 5—CREDITS FOR PAID SICK AND FAMILY LEAVESec. 9641. Payroll credits.Sec. 9642. Credit for sick leave for certain self-employed individuals.Sec. 9643. Credit for family leave for certain self-employed individuals.PART 6—EMPLOYEE RETENTION CREDITSec. 9651. Extension of employee retention credit.PART 7—PREMIUM TAX CREDITSec. 9661. Improving affordability by expanding premium assistance for consumers.Sec. 9662. Temporary modification of limitations on reconciliation of tax credits for coverage under a qualified health plan with advance payments of such credit.Sec. 9663. Application of premium tax credit in case of individuals receiving unemployment compensation during 2021.PART 8—MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONSSec. 9671. Repeal of election to allocate interest, etc. on worldwide basis.Sec. 9672. Tax treatment of targeted EIDL advances.Sec. 9673. Tax treatment of restaurant revitalization grants.Sec. 9674. Modification of exceptions for reporting of third party network transactions.Subtitle H—PensionsSec. 9701. Temporary delay of designation of multiemployer plans as in endangered, critical, or critical and declining status.Sec. 9702. Temporary extension of the funding improvement and rehabilitation periods for multiemployer pension plans in critical and endangered status for 2020 or 2021.Sec. 9703. Adjustments to funding standard account rules.Sec. 9704. Special financial assistance program for financially troubled multiemployer plans.Sec. 9705. Extended amortization for single employer plans.Sec. 9706. Extension of pension funding stabilization percentages for single employer plans.Sec. 9707. Modification of special rules for minimum funding standards for community newspaper plans.Sec. 9708. Cost of living adjustment freeze.Subtitle I—Child Care For WorkersSec. 9801. Child care assistance.TITLE X—INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRSSec. 10001. Department of State operations.Sec. 10002. United States Agency for International Development operations.Sec. 10003. Global response.Sec. 10004. Humanitarian response.Sec. 10005. Multilateral assistance.TITLE XI—COMMITTEE ON NATURAL RESOURCESSec. 1101. Indian Affairs.Sec. 1102. United States Fish and Wildlife Service.TITLE XII—COMMITTEE ON SCIENCE, SPACE, AND TECHNOLOGYSec. 12001. National Institute of Standards and Technology.Sec. 12002. National Science Foundation.Now, having posted all that, and seen each section title, I would invite people to actually look and see what pork there is in the bill, because I saw very little of it in there.This is, for as long as it is, one of the few bills I’ve seen that’s largely on point for what it’s supposed to do.What it’s not supposed to do is make the rich richer, which is what I suspect the republicans are really balking at. They want a piece of that pie and guess what… it’s not in there.

1. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?(a) Kakinada(b) Motupalli(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)(d) NelluruAnswer. b2. With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?1. It is an initiative of the European Union.2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. a3. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. b4. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?1. Jordan2. Iraq3. Lebanon4. SyriaSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1, 2 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4 onlyAnswer. c5. With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. b6. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.Answer.7. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by(a) anyone residing in India.(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.(d) any citizen of India.Answer. d8. Consider the following statements:1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1 and 3 onlyAnswer. c9. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regionsAnswer. c10. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1 onlyAnswer. a11. With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct?1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. b12. In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.Answer. b13. Consider the following in respect of 'National ACareer Service':1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. d14. Which of the following statements best k describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.(d) It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.Answer. b15. Consider the following statements:1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. b16. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c17. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves(b) Chambal River(c) Pulicat Lake(d) Deepor BeelAnswer. a18. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. b19. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at(a) Ajanta(b) Badami(c) Bagh(d) ElloraAnswer. a20. Consider the following pairs:Traditions Communities1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds3. Wari-Warkari — SanthalsWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) None of the aboveAnswer. a‎21. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎‎2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎Select the correct answer using the code given below : ‎‎(a) 1 and 2 only‎‎(b) 3 only ‎‎(c) 1 and 3 only ‎‎(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. c22. Consider the following statements :The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. c23. Consider the following pairs:Commonly used / Unwanted or controversial chemicalsconsumed materials likely to be found in them1. Lipstick Lead2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable oils3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamateWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. d24. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.Select the correct answer using the code given below(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 only(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) None of the above statements is correctAnswer. c25. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?1. Arasavalli2. Amarakantak3. OmkareshwarSelect the correct answer using the code given below :(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. a26. Consider the following statements:1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. d27. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased.3. FDI inflows increased.4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.Select the correct answer using the codes given below :(a) 1 and 4 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer. b28. What is the application of Somatic Cell CJ Nuclear Transfer Technology?(a) Production of biolarvicides(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics(c) Reproductive cloning of animals(d) Production of organisms free of diseasesAnswer. c29. Consider the following statements:1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c30. The term M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in V the news in the context of(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System(d) Security of National HighwaysAnswer. b31. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'?1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. a32. 'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and(a) European Union(b) Gulf Cooperation Council(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development(d) Shanghai Cooperation OrganizationAnswer. a33. Consider the following statements:1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer.34. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?(a) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.(b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.Answer. c35. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?1. Service providers2. Data centres3. Body corporateSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. d36. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a(a) Fundamental Right(b) Natural Right(c) Constitutional Right(d) Legal RightAnswer. d37. What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?(a) To detect neutrinos(b) To detect gravitational waves(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systemsAnswer. b38. What is the purpose of Tidyanjali Yojana'?1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.Select the correct answer using the code given below :(a) 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 1 and 2 only(d) 2 and 3 onlyAnswer. a39. What is the aim of the programme `Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.(c) Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.Answer. a40. Consider the following statements :1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 3 onlyAnswer.41. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.Answer. a42. In India, Judicial Review implies(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.Answer. d43. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy2. Quit India Movement launched3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?(a) 1-2-3(b) 2-1-3(c) 3-2-1(d) 3-1-244. Consider the following statements :1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. a45. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?(a) Corbett National Park(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary(d) Sariska National ParkAnswer. b46. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State3. Dissolution of the local bodiesSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2and 3Answer. c47. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour2. Abolition of untouchability3. Protection of the interests of minorities4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 1 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer.48. Which of the following is geographically Nt,c closest to Great Nicobar ?(a) Sumatra(b) Borneo(c) Java(d) Sri LankaAnswer. a49. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.Answer.50. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.Answer. c51. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.(c) Impose censorship on national press.(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.Answer. d52. The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to(a) Developing solar power production in our country(b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country(c) Exporting our food products to other countries(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our countryAnswer. a53. Consider the following statements:1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. d54. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?(a) Resident Indian citizens only(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1St April, 2004Answer. c55. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. b56. Consider the following statements:1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c57. Consider the following statements:1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. a58. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme?1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.Select the correct answer using the code given below :(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c59. With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements:1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c60. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?1. Ghari al2. Indian wild ass3. Wild buffaloSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 361. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 262. Consider the following pairs:1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian AssociationWhich of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 363. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?(a) Liberty of thought(b) Economic liberty(c) Liberty of expression(d) Liberty of belief64. With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements:1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 265. What is the purpose of setting up of Small 9 Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?1. To supply credit to small business units2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 366. With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements:1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 267. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact 9 that it calls into activity(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.(d) a band of dedicated party workers.68. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.69. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', `String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth70. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 371. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that(a) the executive and legislature work independently.(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.72. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.73. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?(a) The Preamble(b) The Fundamental Rights(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy(d) The Fundamental Duties74. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?(a) 6(b) 7(c) 8(d) 975. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through1. Adjournment motion2. Question hour3. Supplementary questionsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 376. With reference to the Parliament of India, 4 consider the following statements:1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 277. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 378. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.79. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve(b) Nallamala Forest(c) Nagarhole National Park(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve80. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of(a) Privileges(b) Restraints(c) Competition(d) Ideology81. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 282. Which principle among the 'following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries(c) Right to work, education and public assistance(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workersAnswer. b83. Which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.Answer. c84. Which of the following gives 'Global Gender lb Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?(a) World Economic Forum(b) UN Human Rights Council(c) UN Women(d) World Health OrganizationAnswer. a85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.Select the correct answer using the code given below :(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 2 and 3 onlyAnswer. b86. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.Select the correct answer using the code given below :(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 2 and 3 onlyAnswer. a87. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:1. It is a song and dance performance.2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3.(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1 onlyAnswer. b88. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?1. Lord Cornwallis2. Alexander Read3. Thomas MunroSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. c89. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 390. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.91. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in(a) Federalism(b) Democratic decentralisation(c) Administrative delegation(d) Direct democracy92. Consider the following statements:With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon1. legislative function.2. executive function.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 293. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to(a) ASEAN(b) BRICS(c) EU(d) G20Answer. c94, At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at(a) Bhavnagar(b) Bheemunipatnam(c) Chandipur(d) Nagapattinam.Answer. c95. With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements:1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 2 and 3 only96. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 397. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 398. Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'?1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.Select the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1, 2 and 3 only(c) 1, 2 and 4 only(d) 3 and 4 onlyAnswer. a99. Consider the following statements:1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer. c100. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs3. Subterranean deep saline formationsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer. d

Paleo Hero Marketing AnalysisInstitutional AffiliationTable of ContentsIntroduction 1Internal Analysis 1External Micro-environmental Analysis 2External Macro-environmental Analysis 3Political 3Economic 3Social 4Technology 4Laws 4Environment 4SWOT Analysis 4Strengths 4Weakness 4Opportunity 5Threats 5Conclusion 5References 5IntroductionPaleo Hero (PH) is a company that creates food products modeled after the Paleolithic era. The products mainly consists of a purely raw diet that is rich in protein. This diet boosts energy and is useful in sponsoring weight loss. This essay thus examines Paleo Hero to determine the viability of its marketing analysis, whether it stands to excel at the Paleo diet and, its long term staying power as a food producer. It will do this by analyzing its internal audit, micro, and macro-environmental factors and by creating PESTLE and SWOT analyses.Internal AnalysisTo begin with, ‘Marketing Management’ defines internal analysis as an exploration of a company’s competency. This competency is usually measured to underscore the viability of a company competitively within the market (Haider, Zafar, Khalid, Majid, Abdullah & Sarwar, 2019). It utilizes the cost position, strength, and competency of brands the company represents, thus giving a clear picture of the internal workings of the organization. In the internal analysis of a company, there are several main elements; first, the resources and capabilities of the company, its organizational structure and cultural characteristics, Product strength and performance and, its configuration and co-ordination (Ahmed & Rafik, 2013). This help creates a complete picture of the company’s current place and its future direction. The internal analysis is also crucial as it helps create a value chain for the company. Its leaders and managers can utilize this analysis to improve upon areas leading to more significant profitability. It is thus essential as it makes it easier for an organization to develop objectives, develop strategic plans, and, boost sustainability. This keeping the business viable for the long term.Paleo’s marketing environment is comprised of a strong managing department that influences the decisions the company goes through. As a family-owned business, its core competency leans towards the return to optimal healthcare through a strict primal diet. As a result of this, one of its biggest departments is the research and development team, which is tasked with developing 100% natural paleo products. Secondly, the management of the company focuses on the creation of brand awareness. As a relatively new company in the market, PH’s budget is allocated towards marketing itself. This is done through effective market positioning. The company has a big following on social media advocating for wellness as well as partnering with supermarkets and gym chains. As it is marketed towards health and wellness, the company’s main target is millennials and young women. This demographic is the one that is most likely to engage in activities that would directly put the company in its view. These activities include; organic shopping, going to the gym, wellness centers, and doing yoga. Its marketing mix thus targets the health-conscious middle to upper class demographic who are the biggest spenders in health food according to the Italian Journal of Food Science (Vicentini, Liberatore & Mastrocola, 2016).The company’s internal structure is also geared towards optimal performance as it is run by its owners allowing for clear objectives and effective management. PH is thus a strong brand because it focuses on creating a niche for itself within the market. Its products have performed been performing well in the market, allowing it to expand within Australia and overseas to the United States of America. Its products are further boosted by the worldwide trend towards healthy and alternative dieting strategies, making it a brand that is set to expand even further (Paleo Hero, 2019).External Micro-environmental AnalysisSecondly, in the analysis of an organization’s marketing strategy, it is essential to analyse the microenvironment. It is defined as the social factors that are outside an organization’s boundaries. The microenvironment consists of consumers, an organization’s partners, and its competition. These often have a direct line towards a company’s ability to meet its specific targets. These groups of people hold the dynamics of power within the market. As a result, companies need to establish a sufficient balance of power to prevent them from being steamrolled by any one of those players (Mose, 2016). When creating a market strategy, the management needs to consider the influence that each element has, thus enabling the company to react to a sudden change in direction.As one of the most significant players in its industry, PH’s micro-environmental analysis includes Suppliers, Resellers, Customers, Competition, and the General public (Mose, 2016). Its marketing strategy often needs to break down the elements into these five subgroups because they each influence it differently. Currently, its biggest influences are customers, resellers, and suppliers. PH is a brand that is expanding globally and thus is partnered with distributors who market their 38 products. Although they have physical shops in Australia, they also partner with large retailers who purchase products at wholesale prices. In addition to these, the company outsources its natural ingredients from local farmers who vary in farming scale. These suppliers can affect the organizations supply-chain, thus harming the company in the event of a strike or downturn (Zhang, 2018).The company since 2016 has thus sought self-sufficiency by investing in growing its natural products. However, competition from other brands like Owler, (who also sell Paleo diet meals) means the company cannot afford to spend too much revenue on growing its ingredients. In the present, the company is ahead of its competition as it offers more to its customers, vendors, and the general public by way of rewards, i.e., discounts and loyalty programs. The company also wins over its competition through its accessibility. It has over 70 stores in Australia, partnerships with retailers, and an online system that allows for deliveries, not to mention its international subsidiaries (Lemańska-Majdzik, Sipa, & Skibiński, 2018).PH’s microenvironment thus is sustainable as it is structured to allow the company to promote, sell, and distribute its products to the final consumer. As a result, the company only needs to concentrate on streamlining its suppliers by keeping them happy through bonuses and incentives. By doing this, it will continue to improve its organizational performance.External Macro-environmental AnalysisFurthermore, analysed is the macro-environmental analysis affecting the company. Macro-environmental factors are those which exist in society at large and are able to affect the company in one way or another. These include concepts like politics, culture, the economy, and various forces (Kennedy, 2016). PH, as a company is susceptible to factors that are out of its immediate control like any business. As a result, companies often analyze these environmental factors to adapt to their marketing strategy effectively. Macro-environmental analyses have various elements, the Demographic, Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Environmental, and Legal.PH is a market leader within its field and thus must be able to adapt to new stimuli. The success of a marketing campaign is beholden to the ability of the company to predict the unforeseen. Therefore, this essay creates a pestle analysis as PH’s macro-environmental analysis.PoliticalFirst, Political Stability in Australia is guaranteed as fundamental freedoms are enshrined in the law leading to regular free and fair elections. This creates stability for business practice for PH. Secondly, Labour laws exist protecting citizens and businesses alike with corruption being negligible, making the country ideal for companies.EconomicThe country’s economic growth has remained steady. Australia is one of the few countries without economic depressions. With the 13th largest economy in the world and a GDP of 1.3 Trillion Dollars, the economy is stable enough for business. In addition to this, the unemployment rate is less than the global average at 3% with the country having a large workforce of professionals allowing for cheaper labour through expatriates and immigrants (Carlsom, 2019).SocialThird, Australia’s population growth, although increasing, is stagnant. It has a population of 25 million people as of 2019 estimates. The country possesses a diverse ethnic population with the median age being 37.5 years. PH’s marketing strategy focuses on the youth, and thus, this age bracket aligns with its vision to provide healthy alternatives to the population.TechnologyAs a developed nation, technological innovation in the country is up to par with the rest of the world. The government encourages innovation by investing in programs throughout schools and colleges. PH is at the forefront of this by encouraging automation through app development. These make it easier for consumers to obtain their meals through its service delivery platform.LawsPenultimately, the law in Australia protects the freedoms and rights of workers. It also promotes taxation and company fiscal responsibility. PH, as a food producer would also be subject to strict health and food safety laws that protect the consumer. Its intellectual property rights are also protected by the law, allowing for fair competition in a country with some of the best anti-trust laws in the world.EnvironmentLastly, Australia has a temperate climate that fosters the growth of most of the ingredients that make up PH’s foods such as granolas, berries, and wheat. As a holistic and whole-food brand, the company will face little resistance from NGO’s and advocacy groups as the company’s aesthetic fits into their vision.SWOT AnalysisLastly, it is essential to analyze PH’s SWOT analysis. This is an acronym for the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats that a company faces. It helps an organization meet its objectives by planning for the future. This is important as it allows the company to gauge the potential success of a new product or direction it is planning to undergo (Gurel &Tat, 2017). PH intends on being a global leader in the Paleo diet and thus, in preparation for this, must undertake a SWOT analysis to prevent it from making poor business decisions and succumbing to its competition.StrengthsPH has a line of incredible products. The Australian medical board has certified the paleo diet, and thus the products are recommended by nutritionists and trainers. PH also has an extensive network of suppliers throughout Australia and beyond in America. It also plans on expanding into the European market early next year, making its economic viability secure. As a family-owned business, its direction and vision are stable because of fewer internal squabbles for leadership. It has tangible property in terms of physical locations where you can purchase its products. Lastly, its staff is made up of industry specialists who conduct adequate research from its research budget on products. Personnel are also motivated, leading to more sales.WeaknessPH has a marketing strategy that focuses purely on online campaigns. Although these are effective, investing in some advertisements on television and print media allows the company to attract a wider audience. Similarly, PH’s focus is on millennials and the youth. However, there is a growing generation of elders who seek better alternatives to their current diets. Expanding its target to include this group would make the company collect revenue from a more comprehensive stream.OpportunityPH has the chance to tap into emerging markets. Asia, South America, and Africa are on the rise, and tapping into these markets is an opportunity. This especially with the growing middle class in these regions with disposable incomes. Furthermore, PH has few competitors in the Paleo diet sphere, making it easier for it to dominate markets in these regions.ThreatsPH, however, has competition from other healthy diet companies like Whole Foods and Owler. Another threat is the attitudes that consumers have towards the company and its products. Some view the Keto and Paleo diets as inadequate for human sustenance. Secondly, emerging markets may have different regulatory practices that make it harder for the company to thrive. In addition to this, consumer food habits may vary in different regions in the world, making it hard for the company to succeed in those places.ConclusionIn summation, Paleo Hero is an innovative brand in Australia. Having grown from a family-owned business into a multinational corporation, it has what it takes to establish a continuous presence in the international market. However, its marketing strategy, although significant, can be improved to cater for a wider audience. This is critical in an increasingly competitive market that is driven by fads, especially in the food, health, and wellness industry. PH is on track to becoming a great all-natural food provider, if it increases the customer base it targets, especially on the global stage.ReferencesAhmed, P. K., & Rafiq, M. (2013). Internal marketing issues and challenges. European Journal of marketing, 37(9), 1177-1186.Carlson, R. M. (2019). Atlassian: Analysis and strategic recommendation.Gürel, E., & Tat, M. (2017). SWOT analysis: A theoretical review. Journal of International Social Research, 10(51).Haider, A. A., Zafar, A., Khalid, A., Majid, A., Abdullah, M. A., & Sarwar, M. B. (2019). Marketing Management.Home of health food products to support your paleo lifestyle. (2017). Retrieved August 18, 2019, from Paleo Hero website: Home of health food products to support your paleo lifestyleKennedy, A. M. (2016). Macro-social marketing. Journal of Macromarketing, 36(3), 354-365.Lemańska-Majdzik, A., Sipa, M., & Skibiński, A. (2018). The Impact of the External Environment on the Functioning of SMEs-Results of Own Studies. In Economy, Finance and Business in Southeastern and Central Europe (pp. 497-512). Springer, Cham.Mose, A. (2016). Analysis of Macro and Micro Environment on the Marketing Strategy Formulation and the Influence to the Competitive Advantage (Case Study). Academy of Strategic Management Journal, 15, 35-41.Vicentini, A., Liberatore, L., & Mastrocola, D. (2016). FUNCTIONAL FOODS: TRENDS AND DEVELOPMENT OF THE GLOBAL MARKET. Italian Journal of Food Science, 28(2).Zhang, L. (2018, May). Research on the Marketing Strategy of Enterprises Based on the Change of Marketing Environment. In 8th International Conference on Social Network, Communication and Education (SNCE 2018). Atlantis Press.