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Is approval of RBI required to issue a commercial paper?

Well, if by ‘approval’ you mean to say ‘formal written permission’,no. But if you mean to say ‘Follow the guidelines' laid down by the RBI, of course.Below I reproduce the master circular issued by RBI on commercial paper:Introduction:Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. CP, as a privately placed instrument, was introduced in India in 1990 with a view to enable highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings and to provide an additional instrument to investors. Subsequently, primary dealers (PDs) and all-India financial institutions (FIs) were also permitted to issue CP to enable them to meet their short-term funding requirements. The guidelines for issue of CP, incorporating all the amendments issued till date, are given below for ready reference.2. Eligibility for Issue of CP:a. Companies, PDs and FIs are permitted to raise short term resources through CP.b. A company would be eligible to issue CP provided:the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance sheet, is not less than Rs.4 crore;the company has been sanctioned working capital limit by bank/s or FIs; andthe borrowal account of the company is classified as a Standard Asset by the financing bank/institution.3. Issue of CP – Credit enhancement, limits, etc.CP shall be issued as a ‘stand-alone’ product. Further, it would not be obligatory in any manner on the part of the banks and FIs to provide stand-by facility to the issuers of CP.Banks and FIs may, based on their commercial judgement, subject to the prudential norms as applicable to them, with the specific approval of their respective Boards, choose to provide stand-by assistance/credit, back-stop facility etc. by way of credit enhancement for a CP issue.Non-bank entities (including corporates) may provide unconditional and irrevocable guarantee for credit enhancement for CP issue provided:the issuer fulfils the eligibility criteria prescribed for issuance of CP;the guarantor has a credit rating at least one notch higher than the issuer given by an approved CRA; andthe offer document for CP properly discloses the net worth of the guarantor company, the names of the companies to which the guarantor has issued similar guarantees, the extent of the guarantees offered by the guarantor company, and the conditions under which the guarantee will be invoked.The aggregate amount of CP that can be issued by an issuer shall at all times be within the limit as approved by its Board of Directors or the quantum indicated by the CRA for the specified rating, whichever is lower.Banks and FIs shall have the flexibility to fix working capital limits, duly taking into account the resource pattern of company’s financing, including CP.An issue of CP by an FI shall be within the overall umbrella limit prescribed in the Master Circular on Resource Raising Norms for FIs, issued by the Department of Banking Regulation, Reserve Bank of India, as prescribed/ updated from time-to-time.The total amount of CP proposed to be issued should be raised within a period of two weeks from the date on which the issuer opens the issue for subscription. CP may be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates provided that in the latter case, each CP shall have the same maturity date.Every issue of CP, and everyrenewal of a CP, shall be treated as a fresh issue.4. Eligibility for Investment in CPIndividuals, banks,other corporate bodies (registered or incorporated in India) and unincorporated bodies, Non-Resident Indians and Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) shall be eligible to invest in CP.FIIs shall be eligible to invest in CPs subject to (i) such conditions as may be set for them by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI)and (ii)compliance with the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, the Foreign Exchange (Deposit) Regulations, 2000 and the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000, as amended from time to time.5. Form of the Instrument, mode of issuance and redemption5.1 FormCP shall be issued in the form of a promissory note (as specified in Schedule I to these Guidelines) and held in physical form or in a dematerialized form through any of the depositories approved by and registered with SEBI, provided that all RBI regulated entities can deal in and hold CP only in dematerialised form through such depositories.Fresh investments by all RBI-regulated entities shall be only in dematerialised form.CP shall be issued in denominations of Rs. 5 lakh and multiples thereof. The amount invested by a single investor should not be less than Rs. 5 lakh (face value).CP shall be issued at a discount to face value as may be determined by the issuer.No issuer shall have the issue of CP underwritten or co-accepted.Options (call/put) are not permitted on CP.5.2 TenorCP shall be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.The maturity date of the CP shall not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the issuer is valid.5.3. Procedure for IssuanceEvery issuer must appoint an IPA for issuance of CP.The issuer should disclose to the potential investors, its latest financial position as per the standard market practice.After the exchange of confirmation of the deal between the investor and the issuer, the issuer shall arrange for crediting the CP to the Demat account of the investor with the depository through the IPA.The issuer shall give to the investor a copy of IPA certificate to the effect that the issuer has a valid agreement with the IPA and documents are in order (Schedule II).5.4 Rating RequirementEligible participants/issuers shall obtain credit rating for issuance of CP from any one of the SEBI registered CRAs. Theminimum credit ratingshall be ‘A3’ as per rating symbol and definition prescribed by SEBI. The issuers shall ensure at the time of issuance of the CP that the rating so obtained is current and has not fallen due for review.5.5 Investment / RedemptionThe investor in CP (primary subscriber) shall pay the discounted value of the CP to the account of the issuer through the IPA.The investor holding the CP in physical form shall, on maturity, present the instrument for payment to the issuer through the IPA.The holder of a CP in dematerialised form shall get the CP redeemed and receive payment through the IPA.5.6 Documentation ProceduresStandardised procedures and documentation for CPs are prescribed in consultation with Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA) in consonance with international best practices.Issuers /IPAs shall follow the operational guidelines issued by FIMMDA, from time to time, with the approval of RBI.6. Trading and Settlement of CPAll OTC trades in CP shall be reported within 15 minutes of the trade to the reporting platform of Clearcorp Dealing System (India) Ltd.(CDSIL).OTC trades in CP shall be settled through the clearing house of the National Stock Exchange (NSE), i.e., the National Securities Clearing Corporation Limited (NSCCL), the clearing house of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), i.e., Indian Clearing Corporation Limited (ICCL), and the clearing house of the MCX-Stock Exchange, i.e., MCX-SX Clearing Corporation Limited (CCL), as per the norms specified by NSCCL, ICCL and CCL from time to time.The settlement cycle for OTC trades in CP shall either be T+0 or T+1.7. Buyback of CPIssuers may buyback the CP, issued by them to the investors, before maturity.Buyback of CP shall be through the secondary market and at prevailing market price.The CP shall not be bought back before a minimum period of 7 days from the date of issue.Issuer shall intimate the IPA of the buyback undertaken.Buyback of CPs should be undertaken after taking approval from the Board of Directors.8. Duties and ObligationsThe duties and obligations of the Issuer, IPA and CRA are set out below:I. IssuerThe issuer shall ensure that the guidelines and procedures laid down for the issuance of CP are strictly adhered to.II. IPAThe IPA shall ensure that the issuer has the minimum credit rating as stipulated by RBI and the amount mobilised through issuance of CP is within the quantum indicated by CRA for the specified rating or as approved by its Board of Directors, whichever is lower.The IPA shall certify that it has a valid agreement with the issuer (Schedule II).The IPA shall verify that all the documents submitted by the issuer, viz., copy of board resolution, signatures of authorised executants (when CP is issued in physical form) are in order and shall issue a certificate to this effect.Certified copies of original documents, verified by the IPA, shall be held in the custody of IPA.All scheduled banks, acting as IPAs, shall report the details of issuance of CP on the Online Returns Filing System (ORFS) module of the RBI within two days from the date of issuance of the CP.IPAs, shall immediately report, on occurrence, full particulars of defaults in repayment of CP to the Chief General Manager, Financial Markets Regulation Department, Reserve Bank of India, Central Office, Fort, Mumbai-400001 (email) in the format as given in Schedule III of these guidelines.IPAs shall also report all instances of buyback of CPs undertaken by the issuer to the Chief General Manager, Financial Markets Regulation Department, Reserve Bank of India, Central Office, Fort, Mumbai–400001 (email) in the format as given in Schedule IV of these guidelines.III. CRACRAs shall abide by the Code of Conduct prescribed by the SEBI for CRAs for undertaking rating of capital market instruments, which shall be applicable for rating CPs.The CRAs shall have the discretion to determine the validity period of the rating depending upon their perception about the strength of the issuer; and they shall, at the time of rating, clearly indicate the date when the rating is due for review.The CRAs shall closely monitor the rating assigned to issuers vis-à-vis their track record at regular intervals and shall make their revision in the ratings public through their publications and website.FAQ on commercial paper:What is Commercial Paper (CP)?Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note.2. When it was introduced?It was introduced in India in 1990.3. Why it was introduced?It was introduced in India in 1990 with a view to enabling highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings and to provide an additional instrument to investors. Subsequently, primary dealers and all-India financial institutions were also permitted to issue CP to enable them to meet their short-term funding requirements for their operations.4. Who can issue CP?Corporates, primary dealers (PDs) and the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) are eligible to issue CP.5. Whether all the corporates would automatically be eligible to issue CP?No. A corporate would be eligible to issue CP provided –a. the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance sheet, is not less than Rs. 4 croreb. company has been sanctioned working capital limit by bank/s or all-India financial institution/s; andc. the borrowal account of the company is classified as a Standard Asset by the financing bank/s/ institution/s.6. Is there any rating requirement for issuance of CP? And if so, what is the rating requirement?Yes. All eligible participants shall obtain the credit rating for issuance of Commercial Paper either from Credit Rating Information Services of India Ltd. (CRISIL) or the Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Ltd. (ICRA) or the Credit Analysis and Research Ltd. (CARE) or the FITCH Ratings India Pvt. Ltd. or such other credit rating agency (CRA) as may be specified by the Reserve Bank of India from time to time, for the purpose.The minimum credit rating shall be A-2 [As per rating symbol and definition prescribed by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)].The issuers shall ensure at the time of issuance of CP that the rating so obtained is current and has not fallen due for review.7. What is the minimum and maximum period of maturity prescribed for CP?CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.However, the maturity date of the CP should not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the issuer is valid.8. What is the limit up to which a CP can be issued?The aggregate amount of CP from an issuer shall be within the limit as approved by its Board of Directors or the quantum indicated by the Credit Rating Agency for the specified rating, whichever is lower.As regards FIs, they can issue CP within the overall umbrella limit prescribed in the Master Circular on Resource Raising Norms for FIs, issued by DBOD and updated from time-to-time.9. In what denominations a CP that can be issued?CP can be issued in denominations of Rs.5 lakh or multiples thereof.10. How long can the CP issue remain open?The total amount of CP proposed to be issued should be raised within a period of two weeks from the date on which the issuer opens the issue for subscription.11. Whether CP can be issued on different dates by the same issuer?Yes. CP may be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates provided that in the latter case, each CP shall have the same maturity date. Further, every issue of CP, including renewal, shall be treated as a fresh issue.12. Who can act as Issuing and Paying Agent (IPA)?Only a scheduled bank can act as an IPA for issuance of CP.13. Who can invest in CP?Individuals, banking companies, other corporate bodies (registered or incorporated in India) and unincorporated bodies, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) etc. can invest in CPs. However, investment by FIIs would be within the limits set for them by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) from time-to-time.14. Whether CP can be held in dematerilaised form?Yes. CP can be issued either in the form of a promissory note (Schedule I given in the Master Circular-Guidelines for Issue of Commercial Paper dated July 1, 2011 and updated from time –to-time) or in a dematerialised form through any of the depositories approved by and registered with SEBI. Banks, FIs and PDs can hold CP only in dematerialised form.15. Whether CP is always issued at a discount?Yes. CP will be issued at a discount to face value as may be determined by the issuer.16. Whether CP can be underwritten?No issuer shall have the issue of Commercial Paper underwritten or co-accepted.17. Whether CPs are traded in the secondary market?Yes. CPs are actively traded in the OTC market. Such transactions, however, are to be reported on the FIMMDA reporting platform within 15 minutes of the trade for dissemination of trade information to market participation thereby ensuring market transparency.18. What is the mode of redemption?Initially the investor in CP is required to pay only the discounted value of the CP by means of a crossed account payee cheque to the account of the issuer through IPA. On maturity of CP,(a) when the CP is held in physical form, the holder of the CP shall present the instrument for payment to the issuer through the IPA.(b) when the CP is held in demat form, the holder of the CP will have to get it redeemed through the depository and receive payment from the IPA.19. Whether Stand by facility is required to be provided by the bankers/FIs for CP issue?CP being a `stand alone’ product, it would not be obligatory in any manner on the part of banks and FIs to provide stand-by facility to the issuers of CP.However, Banks and FIs have the flexibility to provide for a CP issue, credit enhancement by way of stand-by assistance/credit backstop facility, etc., based on their commercial judgement and as per terms prescribed by them. This will be subjected to prudential norms as applicable and subject to specific approval of the Board.20. Whether non-bank entities/corporates can provide guarantee for credit enhancement of the CP issue?Yes. Non-bank entities including corporates can provide unconditional and irrevocable guarantee for credit enhancement for CP issue provided :a. the issuer fulfils the eligibility criteria prescribed for issuance of CP;b. the guarantor has a credit rating at least one notch higher than the issuer by an approved credit rating agency andc. the offer document for CP properly discloses: the networth of the guarantor company, the names of the companies to which the guarantor has issued similar guarantees, the extent of the guarantees offered by the guarantor company, and the conditions under which the guarantee will be invoked.21. Role and responsibilities of the Issuer/Issuing and Paying Agent and Credit Rating Agency.Issuer:a. Every issuer must appoint an IPA for issuance of CP.b. The issuer should disclose to the potential investors its financial position as per the standard market practice.c. After the exchange of deal confirmation between the investor and the issuer, issuing company shall issue physical certificates to the investor or arrange for crediting the CP to the investor's account with a depository.Investors shall be given a copy of IPA certificate to the effect that the issuer has a valid agreement with the IPA and documents are in order (Schedule II given in the Master Circular-Guidelines for Issue of Commercial Paper dated July 1, 2011 and updated from time –to-time).Issuing and Paying Agenta. IPA would ensure that issuer has the minimum credit rating as stipulated by the RBI and amount mobilised through issuance of CP is within the quantum indicated by CRA for the specified rating or as approved by its Board of Directors, whichever is lower.b. IPA has to verify all the documents submitted by the issuer viz., copy of board resolution, signatures of authorised executants (when CP in physical form) and issue a certificate that documents are in order. It should also certify that it has a valid agreement with the issuer (Schedule II given in the Master Circular-Guidelines for Issue of Commercial Paper dated July 1, 2011 and updated from time –to-time).c. Certified copies of original documents verified by the IPA should be held in the custody of IPA.Credit Rating Agencya. Code of Conduct prescribed by the SEBI for CRAs for undertaking rating of capital market instruments shall be applicable to them (CRAs) for rating CP.b. Further, the credit rating agencies have the discretion to determine the validity period of the rating depending upon its perception about the strength of the issuer. Accordingly, CRA shall at the time of rating, clearly indicate the date when the rating is due for review.c. While the CRAs can decide the validity period of credit rating, CRAs would have to closely monitor the rating assigned to issuers vis-a-vis their track record at regular intervals and would be required to make its revision in the ratings public through its publications and website22. Is there any other formalities and reporting requirement with regard to CP issue?Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA), may prescribe, in consultation with the RBI, any standardised procedure and documentation for operational flexibility and smooth functioning of CP market. Issuers / IPAs may refer to the detailed guidelines issued by FIMMDA on July 5, 2001 in this regard, and updated from time-to-time.Every CP issue should be reported to the Chief General Manager, Reserve Bank of India, Financial Markets Department, Central Office, Fort, Mumbai through the Issuing and Paying Agent (IPA) within three days from the date of completion of the issue, incorporating details as per Schedule III given in the Master Circular-Guidelines for Issue of Commercial Paper dated July 1, 2011 and updated from time-to-time.I hope you enjoy a long read to satisfy your curiosity.

Which answer key is the most accurate for the UPSC 2019?

You can use the following answer key which has been diligently prepared by a team of diverse faculties from leading institutes, where each solution for a particular question has also been backed with a credible source as well.Special thanks to Mr. Pranav Chauhan, Mr. Mansimar Singh and Shri User-13211618028665871653 (IAS) for their valuable inputs in this key.Analysis :The paper was moderately difficult like that in 2017 but there were also relatively easier knock-offs when compared to 2018.Breakdown of various subjects asked this year :1. Environment : 18 questions2. Science & Tech : 14 questions3. Economics : 17 questions4. History : 15 questions5. Geography : 10 questions6. Polity and Governance : 17 questions7. Miscellaneous : 9 questionsEstimated Cutoffs based on paper difficulty and students’ response :General : 105–108.OBC : 100–105SC : 91–95ST : 84–88KEY FOR SET-D UPSC Prelims 2019 :1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c). 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: About AIIB Overview - AIIB2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lendingAnswer: DSource: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/announcements/others/indian-bank-inter-creditor-agreement-for-resolution-of-stressed-assets/article24809734.ece3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankAnswer: ASource: How public sector bank CEOs are selected4. Consider the following statements:1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource: Welcome to Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board, India5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource: Difference Between LTE and VoLTE6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CStatement 2 is wrong:Refer: Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017: Significant Provisions and Issuessignificant-provisions-and-issues/Correct Statement: The women employees should be permitted to visit the facility 4 timesduring the day.https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/Maternity%20Benefit%20Amendment%20Act%2C2017%20.pdf7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?(a) Maintenance of law and order(b) Paying taxes(c) Registering property(d) Dealing with construction permitsAnswer: ASource: Methodology for Doing Business8. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011Answer: CSource: Environment Ministry Notifies E-Waste Management Rules, 20169. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus(a) transportation cost only(b) interest cost only(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godownsAnswer: CSource: Procurement- Food Corporation of India10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?(a) The proportion of literates in the population(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines(c) The size of population in the working age group(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the societyAnswer: DSource: Social capital - Wikipedia11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of(a) Integrated Rural Programme(b) Lead Bank Scheme(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme(d) National Skill Development MissionAnswer: BSource : What is Service Area Approach?12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: Minor Minerals - Arthapedia13. Consider the following statements:1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Why is external debt a cause for worry?14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?(a) Advances(b) Deposits(e) Investments(d). Money at call and short noticeAnswer: BSource : Liabilities and Assets of Scheduled Commercial Banks (Main Items)15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector2. Increasing the government expenditure3. Remittances from Indians abroadSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: : BSource : Basic Economic Concepts [NCERT Class 11 and 12]16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)Answer: CSource : Governor’s Role in the Context of Centre State Relations17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?(a) Certificate of Deposit(b) Commercial Paper(c) Promissory Note(d) Participatory NoteAnswer: DSource : Participatory Notes Allow Foreign Investors to Buy Indian Securities18. Consider the following statements1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : CAMPA bill - Wikipedia19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees3. Finance Commission4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission5. NITI AayogSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 3, 4 and 5(d) 2 and 5Answer: ASource : Laxmikanth20. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : NCERT Class 11 Economicshttps://www.nipfp.org.in/media/pdf/books/BK_33/Chapters/1.%20Import%20Substitution%20Strategy%20Of%20Economic%20Development.pdfFive-Year Plans of India - Wikipedia21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Laxmikanth22. Consider the following statements1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : Measuring India’s economy using PPPs shows it surpassed France 25 years ago23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: AStatement 2 is incorrect.Source- https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/rabi-sowing-down-by-5/article26029944.ece24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?(a) Spices(b) Fresh fruits(c) Pulses(d) Vegetable oilsAnswer: DSource – Let’s cut edible oil importsWhy doubling agri exports may remain elusive25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers(b) Absence of restraint(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.Answer: DSource - Indian Preamble26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing(d) Following an expansionary monetary policyAnswer: DSource – NCERT class 11 and 12 Economics27. Consider the following statements:The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar yearWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - Reserve Bank of IndiaIn Defence of Data Localisation — Will The Move Bolster Data Sovereignty In India28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?(a) Australia(b) Canada(c) The European Union(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: CSource - General Data Protection Regulation - Wikipedia29. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?(a) Japan(b) Russia(c) The United Kingdom(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: b30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio(d) Increase in the population of the countryAnswer: bSource- Multiplier Effect Definition31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.Answer: BSource - Article 142 in The Constitution Of India 194933. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: C34. Consider the following statements:1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - https://www.unodc.org/unodc/en/treaties/CAC/35. Consider the following statements:1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource - Bamboo not a tree: Parliament passes Bill amending Forest Acthttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/bamboo-now-a-minor-forest-produce-3323936. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?(a) Article 19(b) Article 21(c) Article 25(d) Article 29Answer: BWider Interpretation of Article 21Source - http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/art222.htm37. Consider the following statements:1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource –https://www.ifoam.bio/en/news/2018/05/08/indian-supreme-court-says-seeds-plants-and-animals-are-not-patentable http://www.mondaq.com/india/x/611548/Trademark/The+Intellectual+Property+Appellate+Board+Power+Constitution38. Consider the following statements:The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sourcesWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://bch.cbd.int/database/attachment/?id=1905239. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.(b) The Rules are applicable to riotified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.Answer: CSource - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138591http://cpcb.nic.in/municipal-solid-waste-rules/40. Consider the following statements:As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 20181. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource – http://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/daily-news/industrial-employment-standing-orders-central-amendment-rules-2018-fixed-term-employment41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) 4 onlyAnswer: BStatement 1 is wrong because AR doesn’t shut off Physical realitySource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs(b) an early human species(c) a cave system found in North-East India.(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinentAnswer: BSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denisovan43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.Answer: ASource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petri_dishhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cell_culture and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_replication44. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchangedWhich of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: https://www.docusign.com/how-it-works/electronic-signature/digital-signature/digital-signature-faqhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signatureSource : http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired personSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6111409/46. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 2 and 3(c) 1 and 3(d) 1 and 4 onlyAnswer: ASource : https://www.livemint.com/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interferencehttps://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1697196747. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.Answer: BSource:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/watch-binary-black-holes-merger/article18700610.ece48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some peopleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/the-cost-of-resistance/article27005283.ece49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified cropsAnswer: : Ahttps://phys.org/news/2019-02-scientists-sharpen-molecular-scissors-gene.htmlhttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-genome-editing/article19481402.ece50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.Answer: BSource : https://www.hepb.org/prevention-and-diagnosis/vaccination/51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(e) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: D52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.Answer: BSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Land_reform_in_India53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the(a) International Monetary Fund(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development(c) World Economic Forum(d) World BankAnswer: CSource: http://reports.weforum.org/54. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Spectrum Book page-566-56755. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource: Spectrum, Bipin Chandra’s India’s Struggle for independence Page-13056. Consider the following pairs:Movement/Organization Leader1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami NaickerWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: Spectrum , Wikipedia57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?(a) Chanhudaro(b) Kot Diji(c) Sohgaura(d) DesalpurAnswer: cSource : Sohgaura is near Gorakhpur, which falls outside the Harappan Area Map.58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?(a) Kanganahalli(b) Sanchi I(c) Shahbazgarhi(d) SohgauraAnswer: ASource: Wikipedia and http://bharatkalyan97.blogspot.com/2011/07/asoka-on-ancient-indian-sculptures.html59. Consider the following:1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and ritualsWhich of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: RS Sharma, https://www.gktoday.in/gk/hinayana-mahayana/60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.Answer: ASource: Upendra Singh (Page:508)Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=H3lUIIYxWkEC&pg=PA508&lpg=PA508&dq=vishti+forced+labour+in+kathiawar&source=bl&ots=xf9E4T6ZkD&sig=ACfU3U2yg3DCAuGhsU3x22JsPuSxzK6wzw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjKgP-zzcriAhUFsY8KHRQ1DoAQ6AEwCXoECAgQAQ#v=onepage&q=vishti%20forced%20labour%20in%20kathiawar&f=false61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber.(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane(d) Rubber, coffee and wheatAnswer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange#Organism_examples62. Consider the following statements:1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASources:https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/mammals/a/asiatic-lion/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lionhttps://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/india-interior/two-humps-one-job-in-nubra-valley/article7900544.ecehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_rhinoceros#Distribution_and_habitat63. Consider the following pairsFamous place RiverPandharpur ChandrabhagaTiruchirappalli CauveryHampi MalaprabhaWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hampi#Location64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because(a) poverty rates vary from State to State(b) price levels vary from State to State(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to StateAnswer: Either A or BSource:- https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/how-poverty-line-measured65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth(d) Reducing the global warmingAnswer: Dhttps://journals.ametsoc.org/doi/full/10.1175/JCLI-D-17-0620.166. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?(a) Extraction of rare earth elements(b) Natural gas extraction technologies(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles(d) Waste-to-energy technologiesAnswer: DSource:- https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger ReserveAnswer: ASOURCE:- https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/tags/agasthyamala-biosphere-reserve68. Consider the following statements:1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.2. Some species of fish are herbivores.3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(e) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://www.seeturtles.org/sea-turtle-diethttp://www.healthyreefs.org/cms/healthy-reef-indicators/herbivorous-fish-abundance/https://www.noaa.gov/education/resource-collections/marine-life-education-resources/marine-mammalshttp://www.reptileknowledge.com/articles/article28.php69. Consider the following pairs:Wildlife Naturally found in1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern GhatsWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource :https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/iconic-indian-fish-on-the-verge-of-extinction-says-study-49802https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irrawaddy_dolphinhttp://www.conservationindia.org/articles/the-forgotten-wild-cats-of-the-eastern-ghats70. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.Answer: : ASource : https://www.environment.gov.au/protection/waste-resource-recovery/plastics-and-packaging/plastic-microbeads71. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of(a) Chalukya(b) Chandela(c) Rashtrakuta(d) VijayanagaraAnswer: DSOURCE : https://www.jagranjosh.com/general-knowledge/cultural-history-vijaynagar-empire-architecture-literature-and-art-1492780525-172. Consider the following statements:1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Statement 2- IQTA System introduced in medieval (not ancient) period.Statement 3-Office of Mir Bakshi introduced during Mughal period.73. Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource :https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nimbarkahttp://www.southasiaanalysis.org/paper924https://www.sikhiwiki.org/index.php/Jahangir_and_the_Muslim_fundamentalist_movement74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource :https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Mahatma_Gandhi,_his_life,_writings_and_speeches/Indentured_Labourhttps://scroll.in/article/680616/even-gandhi-apostle-of-peace-wanted-indians-to-fight-in-world-war-iStatement 3- Page 421, Spectrum(A brief history of modern India)75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:Person Position held1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of IndiaWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource :https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kshitish_Chandra_Neogyhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Puran_Chand_Joshi76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.Answer: ASource:- https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?(a) Humayun(b) Akbar(c) Jahangir(d) Shah JahanAnswer: CSource : https://www.academia.edu/33006704/Mughal_Paintings78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?(a) Manas National Park(b) Namdapha National Park(c) Neora Valley National Park(d) Valley of Flowers National ParkAnswer: DSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valley_of_Flowers_National_Park#Vegetation79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the(a) Department of Science and Technology(b) Ministry of Employment(c) NITI Aayog(d) Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipAnswer: CSource : http://vikaspedia.in/education/policies-and-schemes/atal-innovation-mission80. On 21st June, the Sun(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of CapricornAnswer: ASource : GC LEONG, PAGE NO-681. Consider the following statements:1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource - http://www.ghgonline.org/nitrousagri.htmhttps://www.government.nl/topics/livestock-farming/ammonia-emissions-from-farmshttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits(b) Tropical rain forests(c) Underground cave systems(d) Water reservoirsAnswer: DSource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aliyar_Reservoirhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isapur_Damhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kangsabati_Project83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource - https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/09/11/rajya-sabha-tv-in-depth-hcng-fuel-of-the-future/https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cng-to-hydrogen-cng-why-switch-and-how-5278356/84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.(c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.Answer: BSource - https://www.pitara.com/science-for-kids/5ws-and-h/how-does-dew-form/85. Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://www.ias4sure.com/wikiias/gs2/44th-amendment/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Judicial_Appointments_Commission86. Consider the following statements:1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2(b) 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CSource – Laxmikanth Page 25.2 and 25.387. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of(a) Jawaharlal Nehru(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri(c) Indira Gandhi(d) Morarji DesaiAnswer: ASource - http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/essay/judicial-review-and-the-ninth-schedule-of-the-indian-constitution/2498288. Consider the following statements:1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coal_mining_in_Indiahttp://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=160021https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/indias-coal-import-rises-13-to-21-mt-in-april/articleshow/69503158.cms89. Consider the following statements:1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: AArticle 102 only mentions the term “Office of Profit” without defining it.Source - https://indiankanoon.org/doc/390434/90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?(a) Third Schedule(b) Fifth Schedule(c) Ninth Schedule(d) Twelfth ScheduleAnswer: BSource – https://tribal.nic.in/FRA/data/LandandGovernanceunderFifthSchedule.pdfhttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/forests/-progressive-maharashtra-governor-must-step-in-to-save-tribal-land-rights-6421791. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of(a) anti-malarial drug(b) blodiesel(c) pulp for paper industry(d) textile fibreAnswer: DSource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/environment/khar-s-experimentation-with-himalayan-nettle-brings-recognition-5788092. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location3. Land surface temperatures of a specific locationSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: D93. Consider the following States:1. Chhattisgarh2. Madhya Pradesh3. Maharashtra4. OdishaWith reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?(a) 2-3-1-4(b) 2-3-4-1(c) 3-2-4-1(d) 3-2-1-4Answer: CSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forest_cover_by_state_in_India94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://ghginstitute.org/2010/07/13/what-is-different-about-methane-ch4-emissions-the-forgotten-co2-in-ghg-emissions-accounting/95. Consider the following:1. Carbon monoxide2. Methane3. Ozone4. Sulphur dioxideWhich of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 1 and 4 'only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/environment/pollution/biomass-burning-a-major-source-of-pollution-in-india/articleshow/45093405.cms?from=mdr96. Consider the following pairs:Sea Bordering country1. Adriatic Sea Albania2. Black Sea Croatia3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco5. Red Sea SyriaWhich of the pair given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 5 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5Answer: BSource : Atlas97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?(a) China(b) India(c) Myanmar(d) VietnamAnswer: bSource : http://www.worldstopexports.com/rice-exports-country/98. Consider the following pairs:Glacier River1. Bandarpunch Yamuna2. Bara Shigri Chenab3. Milam Mandakini4. Siachen Nubra5. Zemu ManasWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 2 and 5(d) 3 and 5Answer: aSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_glaciers_of_India99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as(a) pesticides in agriculture(b) preservatives in processed foods(c) fruit-ripening agents(d) moisturising agents in cosmeticsAnswer: ASource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/pesticide-ban-lands-kerala-in-court-33657100. Consider the following statements:1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer : CSource : https://www.ramsar.org/about/the-ramsar-convention-and-its-mission

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