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My dad wants to retire before 65 because of his declining health. Is a disability lawyer worth looking into?

No one can give you any sort of accurate info since you don’t say where you live. Laws about retirement & disability are not the same in all English speaking countries.In the US,You can retire before reaching full retirement age, which is not 65 by the way. Full retirement age (FRA) is somewhere between 66yo and 67yo, depending of birth. (See 1st link below).Do some research to see what your dad’s benefit would be if retiring at his current age. He can create a “My Social Security” account through the SSA site. That will show benefits at FRA, early retirement, SSDI, etc and will show of he has enough work credits to qualify for SSDI.Declining health /wanting to retire are not qualifications for SSDI /SSI for disability. The The law defines disability in terms of SSDI /SSI as “the inability to do any substantial gainful activity [defined as working ANY job for which one could earn an avg of $1310/mo] by reason of any medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or which has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months.” The fact that one’s health is getting worse, one is ready to retire, working is really difficult, etc are not qualifications. To be considered, you have to prove that you are completely unable to work any job, not just the job you have now. The median salary in the US is about $31k /yr. Using that salary, someone only.has to be capable of working an average of just over 20hrs a week to be ineligible for SSDI.If your father is currently working, it is almost impossible to qualify for SSDI /SSI for disability. The fact that he is working is evidence that he CAN work. The SSA does not look at whether it is difficult to work, the fact that it is getting harder to work, the impact working has on the rest of your life, etc. It only considers if you 1. Are able to work (which currently working demonstrates you can) and 2. Have medical evidence of this.About 1/3 of beneficiaries are approved off of their initial application averaging about 3mo. The remaining 2/3 have to appeal (11% of beneficiaries) and /or go to a hearing (about 55% of beneficiaries), with an average approval time of 2–3yrs. Is your father prepared to spend 2 -3 yrs fighting, documenting, going to consultative exams, meeting with an atty, going to court, etc? And will the incremental benefit of SSDI (which averages about $1275/mo) vs early retirement (which at 62yo averages $1130/mo) worth all that time, effort, energy and contingency fee for the atty?Talking to an atty is always better than asking legal advice of strangers on the internet who may /may not know the law and know nothing of your circumstances. In many areas, attys do free consults to see if there is a case there. However, it is a really good idea to spend at least a few minutes looking at disability / retirement laws and benefits one may be eligible to receive before wasting your time and theirs if the case just doesn’t qualify.Retirement | Retirement Age and Benefit Reduction | SSAStarting Your Retirement Benefits Early You can start receiving your Social Security retirement benefits as early as age 62. However, you are entitled to full benefits when you reach your full retirement age. If you delay taking your benefits from your full retirement age up to age 70, your benefit amount will increase. If you start receiving benefits early, your benefits are reduced a small percent for each month before your full retirement age . To find out how much your benefit will be reduced if you begin receiving benefits from age 62 up to your full retirement age, use the chart below and select your year of birth. This example is based on an estimated monthly benefit of $1000 at full retirement age. Full Retirement and Age 62 Benefit By Year Of Birth Year of Birth 1. Full (normal) Retirement Age Months between age 62 and full retirement age 2. At Age 62 3. A $1000 retirement benefit would be reduced to The retirement benefit is reduced by 4. A $500 spouse's benefit would be reduced to The spouse's benefit is reduced by 5. 1943-1954 66 48 $750 25.00% $350 30.00% 1955 66 and 2 months 50 $741 25.83% $345 30.83% 1956 66 and 4 months 52 $733 26.67% $341 31.67% 1957 66 and 6 months 54 $725 27.50% $337 32.50% 1958 66 and 8 months 56 $716 28.33% $333 33.33% 1959 66 and 10 months 58 $708 29.17% $329 34.17% 1960 and later 67 60 $700 30.00% $325 35.00% If you were born on January 1 st , you should refer to the previous year. If you were born on the 1 st of the month, we figure your benefit (and your full retirement age) as if your birthday was in the previous month. If you were born on January 1 st , we figure your benefit (and your full retirement age) as if your birthday was in December of the previous year. You must be at least 62 for the entire month to receive benefits. Percentages are approximate due to rounding. The maximum benefit for the spouse is 50 percent of the benefit the worker would receive at full retirement age. The percent reduction for the spouse should be applied after the automatic 50 percent reduction. Percentages are approximate due to rounding. Before You Make Your Decision There are advantages and disadvantages to taking your benefit before your full retirement age. The advantage is that you collect benefits for a longer period of time. The disadvantage is your benefit will be reduced. Each person's situation is different. It is important to remember: If you delay your benefits until after full retirement age, you will be eligible for delayed retirement credits that would increase your monthly benefit. That there are other things to consider when making the decision about when to begin receiving your retirement benefits. If you decide to delay your benefits until after age 65, you should still apply for Medicare benefits within three months of your 65th birthday. If you wait longer, your Medicare medical insurance (Part B) and prescription drug coverage (Part D) may cost you more money.https://www.ssa.gov/benefits/retirement/planner/agereduction.html

Do you think UPSC is always beyond the lakhs of aspirants and 1000s of coaching institutes in term of paper setting?

Thank you for A2A.Yes and No both . UPSC PRELIMS is beyond 1000 coaching institutes who do not understand the demand and nature of exam and lakhs of aspirants who blindly depend on them.But UPSC PRELIMS is most predictable and safe exam if you understand it . I myself has proved by clearing all 6 prelims back to back with huge margins( 145- GS1).Let me explain YOU (Ladies and Gentlemen)This is the breakup of subjects this yearHere only 20 were pure current affairs. Other 12 were contemporary topics and were 1 year old so can’t be categorized as current affairs directly. Thus the bulk of questions came from Static and FundamentalsSantosh Sir Prediction before exam :Now read what I had predicted before exam.I had categorically suggested that this year they will focus on Fundamentals and static. Reading and following websites and mugging up stupid compilations will be a waste of time.I had asked to read newspapers , the Hindu .Most of questions are picked from The Hindu like the species one ,etcMy subject distribution was also close.Which section in the prelims 2019 is expected to give more questions according to the trend?I request you go through all my posts and see how relevant they were for PRELIMS 2019.I had strictly warned not to read bulky govt scheme compilation , it was suicidal . I had suggested only few . And I was bang on - only one scheme came which i had suggested Atal innocation mission.1. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011My Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment “ Extended Producer Responsibility”2.Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List Important topics from environment : Ramsar Wetland3.As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2CAMPA Compensatory afforestationMy Topic List Important topics from environment: CAMPA4. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?(a) Extraction of rare earth elements(b) Natural gas extraction technologies(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles(d) Waste-to-energy technologiesMy Topic List : Waste to energy5. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as(a) pesticides in agriculture(b) preservatives in processed foods(c) fruit-ripening agents(d) moisturising agents in cosmeticsMy Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment:: Stockhom-Persistant Organic Pollutatnt5. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.My Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment: Dead Zones in Ocean6. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4(d) 1, 3 and 4My Topic List Important Environment Topics :PVTGs in A&N( Tribes)7. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some peopleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4My Topic List Important Anti Microbial Resistance and Policy8. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.9. Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My Topic lis :Kabir and Akbar10. Consider the following statements:1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Debt11. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing(d) Following an expansionary monetary policyRBI steps to check currency devaluation12. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector2. Increasing the government expenditure3. Remittances from Indians abroadSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: bCurrency Crisis13. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?(a) Certificate of Deposit(b) Commercial Paper(c) Promissory Note(d) Participatory NoteP notes14.1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My Topic List : Amendments15. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of(a) Chalukya(b) Chandela(c) Rashtrakuta(d) VijayanagaraVijayanagar empire (Themes part II) (chap 6)16. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the(a) Department of Science and Technology(b) Ministry of Employment(c) NITI Aayog(d) Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipMt Topic List : AIM17.1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.44th AmendmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Amendments and HC18. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2GDP -PPP19. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.Advisory Jurisdiction20.1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3FRA 200621. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers(b) Absence of restraint(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fullyLiberty22. Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 244th amendment23. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2(b) 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4Judges removal24. Asiatic Lion Conservation Project ( endangered, canine distemper virus, Gir, Pania sanctuary)25. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits(b) Tropical rain forests(c) Underground cave systems(d) Water reservoirsAnswer: DIndian Major Dams- New dams26. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?(a) Third Schedule(b) Fifth Schedule(c) Ninth Schedule(d) Twelfth Schedule27. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of(a) Jawaharlal Nehru(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri(c) Indira Gandhi(d) Morarji DesaiSchedules28. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth(d) Reducing the global warmingClimate engineering –carbon capture, Bio char, stratospheric aerosol injection29. Consider the following:1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and ritualsWhich of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic list :Buddhism features30.The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sourcesWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My topic List :EPA31.1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List Polity : Office of profitoffice of Profit32.1.According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List :Indian Patent and Farmer right33.In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired personSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List :Cyber Physical System34.Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.My topic List :Gravitational waves35.Consider the following pairs:Movement/OrganizationLeader1. All India Anti-Untouchability LeagueMahatma Gandhi2. All India Kisan SabhaSwami Sahajanand Saraswati3. Self-Respect MovementE. V. Ramaswami NaickerWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List :Self-respect movement37. Consider the following pairs:SeaBordering country1. Adriatic SeaAlbania2. Black SeaCroatia3. Gaspian SeaKazakhstan4. Mediterranean SeaMorocco5. Red SeaSyriaWhich of the pair given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 5 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5My Topic List :black Sea and Mediterranean Sea-38. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year .2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 239. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:PersonPosition held1. Sir Tej Bahadur SapruPresident, All India Liberal Federation2. K. C. NeogyMember, The Constituent Assembly3. P. C. JoshiGeneral Secretary, Communist Party of IndiaMy Topic List :Constituent assemblySantosh Sir Elimination Techniques:Can you share your intelligent guessing tricks?40 . With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c). 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: aHere statement 2 and statement 3 can be eliminated because they are extreme. You can read what I had advised in my intelligent guessing tricks.41. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lendingAnswer: dHere option c and d can only be the answer as they are common.42. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankAnswer: cTopic List : Banking bsics43. Consider the following statements:1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: bHere also extreme statement like First in option 1 can be eliminated. Thus we get the answer.44. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: dTopic List : 5G 4 G.45. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?(a) Maintenance of law and order(b) Paying taxes(c) Registering property(d) Dealing with construction permitsAnswer: aHere option a is unrelated to the question , thus can be eliminated easily. Other 3 deals with doing business.Some indirect Topics46.The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankBanking basics:47.Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?(a) Advances(b) Deposits(e) Investments(d). Money at call and short noticeMy Topic list :Banking48. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 449. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchangedWhich of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: dMy Topics list - Digital India51. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List : Climate change and oceans and Deep Ocean Mining.There are many more which I didn’t include because they were indirect.My point here is if you understand the nature and demand of exam , its easy. I have done it not once but six times . You can also do it.But you have to cut the clutter. If you read and follow unnecessary online stuff daily which UPSC will never ask , you are bound to lose as your precious time will get wasted.For free mains guidance :( AsksantoshSir- telegram)We are starting mains guidance in a week . I will continue guiding you in this journey . But always remember

How can I work as a nurse in Paris?

I second Melia for the language, it is mandatory, not only in Paris.For the diploma, it is a bit complicated. (Be careful, in France, Nursing and Midwifery are different jobs with different diplomas.)That depends on your nationality and your degree.If you have an european diploma valid in France (+ Andorra and Swizerland), check with the ARS Agences Régionales de Santé of the area you wanna work in. You will have to prepare a bunch of documents listed there : arrêté du 20 janvier 2010 relatif à la déclaration préalable de prestation de services. After a verification of your qualifications, you will obtain a numéro ADELI, which is a administrative number allowing you to work as a nurse.If you have a extra-european diploma but valid in an european country, like a brazilian diploma valid in Spain (Canada, US, Australia, New-Zeland for the UK) , you will need to contact a representant of the ministery of health DRJSCS and... compile a file. The sante.gouv.fr can ask for more infos and even a test or an adaptation period (less than a year)If you have an european diploma but not valid in France, you will need to contact a representant of the ministery of health DRJSCS and... compile a file. The regional comitee will examine your case and eventually give you the ADELI number.Other countries : you must file a demand to obtain a equivalence, often with 2 or 3 exams.Once you get the ADELI sesame, your first move can be temp jobs, it will allow you to discover the market and the cultural differences.MP me if you need more infos!More infos from one of my favourite nursing websitesDiplomas recognized by European UnionDiplômes reconnus par l’Europe (ordre alphabétique)Allemagne :Zeugnis über die staatliche Prüfung in der Krankenpflege, délivré par Staatlicher Püfungsausschuss postérieurement au 28 juin 1978.Andorre :Le diplôme d’infirmier ou d’infirmière délivré par l’école universitaire d’infirmiers de la principauté d’Andorre ;Texte de référence : Circulaire DPM/DMI 2/DHOS/P 2 no 2003-101 du 3 mars 2003 relative à la délivrance des autorisations de séjour et de travail aux infirmières et infirmiers ressortissants de pays hors EEE et titulaires d’un diplôme étrangerAutriche :1° Diplom als « Diplomierte Gesundheits- und Krankenschwester/Diplomierter Gesundheits- und Krankenpfleger », délivré par Schule für allgemeine Gesundheits- und Krankenpflege.2° Diplom als « Diplomierte Krankenschwester/Diplomierter Krankenpfleger », délivré par Allgemeine Krankenpflegeschule.Belgique :1° Diploma gegradueerde verpleger-verpleegster/Diplôme d'infirmier(ère) gradué(e)/Diplom eines (einer) graduierten Krankenpflegers (-pflegerin), délivré par De erkende opleidingsinstituten/les établissements d'enseignement reconnus/die anerkannten Ausbildungsanstalten postérieurement au 1er juin 1961.2° Diploma in de ziekenhuisverpleegkunde/Brevet d'infirmier(ère) hospitalier(ère)/Brevet eines (einer) Krankenpflegers (pflegerin), délivré par De bevoegde Examencommissie van de Vlaamse Gemeenschap/le jury compétent d'enseignement de la Communauté française/der zuständige « Prüfungsausschuss der Deutschsprachigen Gemeinschaft » postérieurement au 1er juin 1961.3° Brevet van Verpleegassistent(e)/Brevet d'hospitalier(ère)/Brevet einer Pflegeassistentin délivré par l'Etat belge ou par les écoles créées ou reconnues par l'Etat belge ;Bulgarie :Диплома за висше образование на образователно- квалификационна степен "Бакалавър" с професионална квалификация "Медицинска сестра", délivré par УниверситетChypre :dplwma G «yikcz Noshl«utikcz, délivré par Noshl«utikc Scolc.Danemark :Eksamensbevis efrer gennemffrt sygeplejerskeuddannelse, délivré par Sygeplejeskole godkendt af Undervisningsministeriet postérieurement au 30 décembre 1983.Espagne :Titulo de diplomado universitario en enfermería, délivré par Ministerio de educación y cultura/El rector de una universidad.Estonie :Diplom oe erialal délivré par :1° Tallinna Meditsiinikool.2° Tartus Meditsiinikool.3° KohtIa-Järve Meditsiinikool.Finlande :1° Sairaanhoitajan tutkinto/sjukskötarexamen délivré par Terveydenhuolto-oppilaitokset/hälsovärdsläroanstalter.2° Sosiaali- ja terveysalan ammattikorkeakoulututkinto, sairaanhoitaja (AMK)/yrkeshögskoleexamen inom hälsovärd och det sociala omrädet, sjukskötare (YH) délivré par Ammattikorkeakoulut/yrkeshögskolor.Grèce :1° Ptcío Noshleutikcz Paau/míou Aqhngn délivré par Panepistcmio Aqhngn.2° Ptucío Noshleutikcz Tecuolog ikgn Ekpaideutikgn - Idrumátwn (T.E.I.) délivré par Tecnologiká Ekpaideutiká Idrfmata Ypourgeío Eqnikhz Paideíaz kai Qrhskeumátwn.3° Ptucío Axwmatikgn Noshleutikcz délivré par Ypourgeío Eqnikcz Amunaz.4° Ptucío Adeljgn Nosokómwn prghn Anwtbhwn Scolbn Upourgeíou Ugeíaz kai Prónoiaz délivré par Upourgeío Ugeíaz kai Prónoiaz.5° Prucío Adeljgn Nosokómwn kai Episkeptrign prghn Anwtarwn Scolgn Upourgeíou Ugeíaz kai Prónoiaz délivré par Upourgeío Ugeíaz kai Prónoiaz.6° Ptucío Tmcmaoz Noshleutkcz délivré par KATEE Upourgeíou Eqnikhz Paideíaz kai Qrhskeumátwn.Hongrie :1° Ápoló bizonyítvány, délivré par Iskola.2° Diplomás ápoló oklevél, délivré par Egyetem/föiskola.3° Egyetemi okleveles ápoló oklevél, délivré par Egyetem.Irlande :Certificate of Registered General Nurse, délivré par An Bord Altranais (The Nursing Board) postérieurement au 21 juin 1980.Islande :Próf í hjùkrunarfræóum frá Háskóla Íslands (diplôme), délivré par le département de soins infirmiers de la faculté de médecine de l'université d'Islande.Italie :Diploma di infermiere professionale, délivré par Scuole riconosciute dallo Stato.Lettonie :1° Diploms par masas kvalifikacijas iegusanu, délivré par Masu skolas.2° Mâsas diploms, délivré par Universitates tipa augstskola pamatojoties uz Valsts eksamenu komisijas lemumu.Lituanie :1° Aukstojo mokslo diplomas, nurodantis suteikta bendrosios praktikos slaugytojo profesine kvalifikacija, délivré par Universitetas.2° Aukstojo mokslo diplomas (neuniversitetines studijos), nurodantis suteikta bendrosios praktikos slaugytojo profesine kvalifikacija, délivré par KolegijaLuxembourg :1° Diplôme d'Etat d'infirmier.2° Diplôme d'Etat d'infirmier hospitalier gradué, délivré par le ministère de l'éducation nationale, de la formation professionnelle et des sports postérieurement au 1er juin 1972.Malte :Lawrja jew diploma fl-istudji tal-infermerija, délivré par Universita `ta' Malta.Norvège :« Bevis for bestått sykepleiereksamen » (diplôme d'infirmier(ère) en soins généraux), délivré par une école d'infirmiers(ères)Pays-Bas :1° Diploma's verpleger A, verpleegster A, verpleegkundige A.2° Diploma verpleegkundige MBOV (Middelbare Beroepsopleiding Verpleegkundige).3° Diploma verpleegkundige HBOV (Hogere Beroepsopleiding Verpleegkundige), délivré par Door een van overheidswege benoemde examencommissie postérieurement au 1er janvier4° Diploma beroepsonderwijs verpleegkundige - Kwalificatieniveau 4.5° Diploma hogere beroepsopleiding verpleegkundige - Kwalificatieniveau 5, délivré par Door een van overheidswege aangewezen opleidingsinstelling.Pologne :Dyplom ukonczenia studiów wyzszych na kierunku pielegniarstwo z tytulem « magister pielegniarstwa, délivré par :1° Uniwersytet Medyczny.2° Collegium Medicum Uniwersytetu Jagiellonkiego.Le diplôme d'infirmier (niveau licence) (dyplom licencjata pielegniarstwa) accompagné d'une attestation délivrée par les autorités compétentes polonaises certifiant que ces ressortissants se sont consacrés effectivement et licitement aux activités d'infirmier responsable des soins généraux en Pologne pendant au moins trois années au cours des cinq années précédant la délivrance de l'attestation et que ces activités ont comporté la pleine responsabilité de la programmation, de l'organisation et de l'administration des soins infirmiers aux patients.Le diplôme d'infirmier sanctionnant des études supérieures, délivré par un établissement d'enseignement professionnel médical (dyplom pielegniarki albo pielegniarki dyplomowanej) accompagné d'une attestation délivrée par les autorités compétentes polonaises certifiant que ces ressortissants se sont consacrés effectivement et licitement aux activités d'infirmier responsable des soins généraux en Pologne pendant au moins cinq années au cours des sept années précédant la délivrance de l'attestation et que ces activités ont comporté la pleine responsabilité de la programmation, de l'organisation et de l'administration des soins infirmiers aux patients.Portugal :1° Diploma do curso de enfermagem geral, délivré par Escolas de Enfermagem.2° Diploma/carta de curso de bacharelato em enfermagem, délivré par Escolas superiores de enfermagem.3° Carta de curso de licenciatura em enfermagem, délivré par Escolas superiores de enfermagem ; escolas superiores de saúde.République tchèque :1° Diplom o ukonceni studia ve studijním programu osetrovatelství ve studijním oboru vseobecná sestra (bakalár, Bc.), délivré par Vysoká skola zrízená nebo uznaná státem.2° Diplom o ukoncení studia ve studijním oboru diplomovaná vseobecná sestra (diplomovan specialista, DiS.), délivré par Vyssí odborná skola zrízená nebo uznaná státem.Roumanie :1. Diplomă de absolvire de asistent medical generalist cu studii superioare de scurtă durată, délivré par Universități.2. Diplomă de licență de asisten medical generalist cu studii superioare de lungă durată, délivré par Universități.Royaume-Uni :Statement of registration as a registered general nurse in part 1 or part 12 of the register kept by the United Kingdom Central Council for Nursing, Midwifery and Health Visiting.Slovaquie :1° Vysokoskolsk diplom o udelení akademického titulu « magister z ostrovatel'stva » (« Mgr. »), délivré par Vysoká skola.2° Vysokoskolsk diplom o udelení akademického titulu « bakalár z ostrovatel'stva » (« Bc. »), délivré par Vysoká skola.3° Absolventsk diplom v studijnom odbore diplomovaná vseobecnâ sestrá, délivré par Stredná zdravotnicka skola.Slovénie :Diploma, s katero se podeijuje strokovni naslov « diplomirana medicinska sestra/diplomirani zdravstvenik », délivré par :1° Univerza.2° Visoka strokovna sola.Suède :Sjuksköterskeexamen, délivré par Universitet eller högskola.Suisse :Infirmière diplômée en soins généraux, infirmier diplômé en soins généraux/diplomierte Krankenschwester in allgmeiner Krankenpflege, diplomierter Krankenpfleger in allgemeiner Krankenpflege/infermiera diplomata in cure generali, infermiere diplomato in cure generali, délivré par la conférence des directeurs cantonaux des affaires sanitaires.

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