Consolidated Reports Of Condition And Income For A Bank With Domestic Offices Only A: Fill & Download for Free

Title insurance is a fascinating industry. This is in no small part due to the regional variation in the manner in which real estate transactions are closed. In some regions, lawyers handle key parts of the process, while in others, non-lawyers (i.e. agents, etc.) facilitate different parts of the closing of a real estate transaction. What David Jensen said in his answer is spot on from what I know and have learned from talking to professionals involved in the business. ALTA is a good place to learn about title insurance: ALTA® Launches Title Industry Consumer InitiativeHere is a good description of title insurance from the recent 10-K of Fidelity National, one of the largest title insurers in the US:Title InsuranceMarket for title insurance. According to Demotech Performance of Title Insurance Companies 2014 Edition, an annual compilation of financial information from the title insurance industry that is published by Demotech Inc., an independent firm ("Demotech"), total operating income for the entire U.S. title insurance industry has decreased from its highest at $17.8 billion in 2005 to $13.4 billion in 2013, which is a $1.2 billion increase from 2012. The size of the industry is closely tied to various macroeconomic factors, including, but not limited to, growth in the gross domestic product, inflation, unemployment, the availability of credit, consumer confidence, interest rates, and sales volumes and prices for new and existing homes, as well as the volume of refinancing of previously issued mortgages.Most real estate transactions consummated in the U.S. require the use of title insurance by a lending institution before the transaction can be completed. Generally, revenues from title insurance policies are directly correlated with the value of the property underlying the title policy, and appreciation or depreciation in the overall value of the real estate market are major factors in total industry revenues. Industry revenues are also driven by factors affecting the volume of real estate closings, such as the state of the economy, the availability of mortgage funding, and changes in interest rates, which affect demand for new mortgage loans and refinancing transactions.Both the volume and the average price of residential real estate transactions declined from 2007-2011. Beginning in 2008 and continuing through 2011, the mortgage delinquency and default rates caused negative operating results at a number of banks and financial institutions. Multiple banks failed during this time, reducing the capacity of the mortgage industry to make loans. Since this time, lenders have tightened their underwriting standards which has made it more difficult for buyers to qualify for new loans.However, during this same period, interest rates declined to historically low levels, which spurred higher refinance activity in the period 2009 through 2012. During 2013 and continuing through 2014, refinance activity declined due to rising interest rates; however, we experienced an increase in the purchase volume and average price of residential real estate. Overall, our title premiums declined in 2014 compared to 2013.Our revenues in future periods will continue to be subject to these and other factors which are beyond our control and, as a result, are likely to fluctuate.The U.S. title insurance industry is concentrated among a handful of industry participants. According to Demotech, the top four title insurance groups accounted for 87 % of net premiums written in 2013 .Approximately 30 independent title insurance companies accounted for the remaining 13 % of net premiums written in 2013 . Consolidation has created opportunities for increased financial and operating efficiencies for the industry’s largest participants and should continue to drive profitability and market share in the industry.Title Insurance Policies. Generally, real estate buyers and mortgage lenders purchase title insurance to insure good and marketable title to real estate and priority of lien. A brief generalized description of the process of issuing a title insurance policy is as follows:•The customer, typically a real estate salesperson or broker, escrow agent, attorney or lender, places an order for a title policy.•Company personnel note the specifics of the title policy order and place a request with the title company or its agents for a preliminary report or commitment.•After the relevant historical data on the property is compiled, the title officer prepares a preliminary report that documents the current status of title to the property, any exclusions, exceptions and/or limitations that the title company might include in the policy, and specific issues that need to be addressed and resolved by the parties to the transaction before the title policy will be issued.•The preliminary report is circulated to all the parties for satisfaction of any specific issues.•After the specific issues identified in the preliminary report are satisfied, an escrow agent closes the transaction in accordance with the instructions of the parties and the title company’s conditions.•Once the transaction is closed and all monies have been released, the title company issues a title insurance policy.In real estate transactions financed with a mortgage, virtually all real property mortgage lenders require their borrowers to obtain a title insurance policy at the time a mortgage loan is made. This lender’s policy insures the lender against any defect affecting the priority of the mortgage in an amount equal to the outstanding balance of the related mortgage loan.An owner’s policy is typically also issued, insuring the buyer against defects in title in an amount equal to the purchase price. In a refinancing transaction, only a lender’s policy is generally purchased because ownership of the property has not changed. In the case of an all-cash real estate purchase, no lender’s policy is issued but typically an owner’s title policy is issued.Title insurance premiums paid in connection with a title insurance policy are based on (and typically are a percentage of) either the amount of the mortgage loan or the purchase price of the property insured. Applicable state insurance regulations or regulatory practices may limit the maximum, or in some cases the minimum, premium that can be charged on a policy. Title insurance premiums are due in full at the closing of the real estate transaction. A lender’s policy generally terminates upon the refinancing or resale of the property.The amount of the insured risk or “face amount” of insurance under a title insurance policy is generally equal to either the amount of the loan secured by the property or the purchase price of the property. The title insurer is also responsible for the cost of defending the insured title against covered claims.The insurer’s actual exposure at any given time, however, generally is less than the total face amount of policies outstanding because the coverage of a lender’s policy is reduced and eventually terminated as a result of payments on the mortgage loan. A title insurer also generally does not know when a property has been sold or refinanced except when it issues the replacement coverage. Because of these factors, the total liability of a title underwriter on outstanding policies cannot be precisely determined.Title insurance companies typically issue title insurance policies directly through branch offices or through affiliated title agencies, or indirectly through independent third party agencies unaffiliated with the title insurance company. Where the policy is issued through a branch or wholly-owned subsidiary agency operation, the title insurance company typically performs or directs the title search, and the premiums collected are retained by the title company. Where the policy is issued through an independent agent, the agent generally performs the title search (in some areas searches are performed by approved attorneys), examines the title, collects the premium and retains a majority of the premium. The remainder of the premium is remitted to the title insurance company as compensation, part of which is for bearing the risk of loss in the event a claim is made under the policy. The percentage of the premium retained by an agent varies from region to region and is sometimes regulated by the states. The title insurance company is obligated to pay title claims in accordance with the terms of its policies, regardless of whether the title insurance company issues policies through its direct operations or through independent agents.Prior to issuing policies, title insurers and their agents attempt to reduce the risk of future claim losses by accurately performing title searches and examinations. A title insurance company’s predominant expense relates to such searches and examinations, the preparation of preliminary title reports, policies or commitments, the maintenance of "title plants,” which are indexed compilations of public records, maps and other relevant historical documents, and the facilitation and closing of real estate transactions. Claim losses generally result from errors made in the title search and examination process, from hidden defects such as fraud, forgery, incapacity, or missing heirs of the property, and from closing related errors.Residential real estate business results from the construction, sale, resale and refinancing of residential properties, while commercial real estate business results from similar activities with respect to properties with a business or commercial use. Commercial real estate title insurance policies insure title to commercial real property, and generally involve higher coverage amounts and yield higher premiums. Residential real estate transaction volume is primarily affected by macroeconomic and seasonal factors while commercial real estate transaction volume is affected primarily by fluctuations in local supply and demand conditions for commercial space.Direct and Agency Operations. We provide title insurance services through our direct operations and through independent title insurance agents who issue title policies on behalf of our title insurance companies. Our title insurance companies determine the terms and conditions upon which they will insure title to the real property according to our underwriting standards, policies and procedures.Direct Operations. In our direct operations, the title insurer issues the title insurance policy and retains the entire premium paid in connection with the transaction. Our direct operations provide the following benefits:•higher margins because we retain the entire premium from each transaction instead of paying a commission to an independent agent;•continuity of service levels to a broad range of customers; and•additional sources of income through escrow and closing services.We have approximately 1,200 offices throughout the U.S. primarily providing residential real estate title insurance. We continuously monitor the number of direct offices to make sure that it remains in line with our strategy and the current economic environment. Our commercial real estate title insurance business is operated almost exclusively through our direct operations. We maintain direct operations for our commercial title insurance business in all the major real estate markets including Atlanta, Boston, Chicago, Dallas, Houston, Los Angeles, New York, Philadelphia, Phoenix, Seattle and Washington D.C.Agency Operations. In our agency operations, the search and examination function is performed by an independent agent or the agent may purchase the search and examination from us. In either case, the agent is responsible to ensure that the search and examination is completed. The agent thus retains the majority of the title premium collected, with the balance remitted to the title underwriter for bearing the risk of loss in the event that a claim is made under the title insurance policy. Independent agents may select among several title underwriters based upon their relationship with the underwriter, the amount of the premium “split” offered by the underwriter, the overall terms and conditions of the agency agreement and the scope of services offered to the agent. Premium splits vary by geographic region, and in some states are fixed by insurance regulatory requirements. Our relationship with each agent is governed by an agency agreement defining how the agent issues a title insurance policy on our behalf. The agency agreement also sets forth the agent’s liability to us for policy losses attributable to the agent’s errors. An agency agreement is usually terminable without cause upon 30 days notice or immediately for cause. In determining whether to engage or retain an independent agent, we consider the agent’s experience, financial condition and loss history. For each agent with whom we enter into an agency agreement, we maintain financial and loss experience records. We also conduct periodic audits of our agents and strategically manage the number of agents with which we transact business in an effort to reduce future expenses and manage risks. As of December 31, 2014 , we transact business with approximately 5,000 agents.

There may not be much questions on the subject especially on mathematics, chemistry or physics.There may be questions on the following subjects:CommerceEconomicsHistoryComputer scienceIt has to be noted that the interview is conducted by only retired bank executives and the following will be their main focus when it comes to questions:BankingEconomicsCapital marketCurrent affairsRecent budgetPersonalities who are in the news recentlyRecent happenings in the field of banking, politics and money mattersPlease read the following for better guidance:Tips for Interview for recruitment as Probationary Officers in banksInstructions to candidatesThe purpose of the interview:The purpose of any interview is to select one suitable individual for the concerned post. The person to be interviewed may be having higher qualifications; however, he may not be having the requisite potentials or caliber in handling the job offered namely; better communication ability, leadership quality, emotional strength and efficient interpersonal relationship. Banking demands people who are willing to work hard by mingling with customers freely and friendly apart from maintaining a cordial; social and friendly relationship with the colleagues and superiors.Phases of the interview:The interview is conducted in four phases namely;·the first phase during the course of which questions are asked about the individual and his specialization in any area;·the second phase wherein questions are asked about the bank for which the interview is conducted;·the third phase wherein questions are asked about general banking, economy, finance and latest developments and·the fourth phase is the final round for the interview.The interview committee:The interview committee consists of three to five imminent personalities who are well versed in banking matters and normally the services of executives or retired executives of various commercial banks are utilized for the purpose of conducting the interview. The following system is adopted by the committee members during the course of interview process:·While one member poses questions to the candidate, the remaining members observe the body language of the individual as to how he reacts to the questions and especially in respect of difficult questions;·They also review as to how the candidate comes forward in presenting his answers in a crisp manner thereby providing the relevant points expected by the committee members at the shortest possible time.·Basing upon the answering ability, communication ability, level of confidence, willingness to accept challenges etc., the committee members select the individuals by awarding better gradation.·When the candidate is found to be inattentive on account of low level of self confidence or some other factors, the committee members pose provoking questions so that the candidate is emotionally provoked and aroused to come forward with appropriate answers.The interview process:The interview process consists of the following stages:·Attendance marking by the candidate at the reception committee and filling up the relevant format thereby furnishing his details;·Verification of the certificates namely; qualification certificates, experience certificates, certificates relating to extracurricular activities etc., by the reception committee/team members;·Candidate waiting at the reception hall for his turn;·Once called, candidate entering into the interview room duly seeking permission of the team members;·Candidate thanking the interview members for permitting him/her inside the cabin;·Candidate sitting on the seat once offered by one/more members in the interview committee;·Candidate thanking the person who had offered the seat;·Candidate shaking his hands with the members, if offered;·Candidate eagerly awaiting for the questions from the members;·Candidate mentally preparing himself to attend the interview with full concentration maintaining regular eye contact with the committee members;·Candidate answering the questions posed by the members enthusiastically, till the entire process is treated as completed;·Candidate collecting all certificates and documents once the interview is treated as completed;·Candidate thanking the committee members and·Candidate politely raising from the chair, walking towards the entrance, opening the cabin door and gently closing the door behind him;·Candidate meeting other candidates awaiting at the reception hall cheerfully.Dress code:·Dress code is most important aspect and a person is judged by the dress he wears. Dress makes half man.·For men: Please wear a neat full length trouser and one full length shirt – preferably white or light shaded; Usage of “T” shirts greatly dampens the image of the candidate and the purpose of using any ‘T” shirt is to have better comfort during the course of walking, relaxing, jogging, running, partying and relaxing. As such “T” shirts are not considered to be a fit wear during professional meetings including interviews. Do not wear highly dark colored and checked dresses. The candidate has to wear a good quality shoes neatly polished. If possible he can wear a “tie” and this is purely optional and certain organizations pay more attention to the personality of an individual which gets improved by way of better dressing.·For girls: Under any circumstances girls should not wear provoking dresses namely; “T” shirts, jeans pants, trousers, half gowns and shirts with messages and blouses with low cuts. A neat chudithar is considered to be the best option and wearing of sarees improves the image of the individual.A.Questions during the first phase:·Initially the candidates are invited to tell about their personal life and interests, their family members, their ambitions, their qualifications, their achievements in studies, sports, music and any other extracurricular activities;·The second question is about the place to which the candidate belongs. In case the candidate belongs to Chennai, he will be asked to tell about Chennai and the importance of the place. Necessarily the candidate should have a thorough knowledge about the place from which he is hailing;·The interviewers will pose “ice breaking questions” in order to shift the focus of the candidate. This is for the purpose of finding out the reaction of the candidate during such “focus change”. (Banks demand people who are able to face any challenges);·During the first two to three minutes, more than 80 percent of the questions will be on the personal details and basic information about the candidate. It has to be remembered that – “The first impression is the best impression” and accordingly the candidate has to behave politely, calmly, courageously and confidently.Sample questions during the first phase:·01. My dear friend, now tell us about yourself: The candidate has to inform in a crisp manner about himself, his family, his qualifications, achievements if any etc. Unnecessary details should be avoided altogether and the candidates at no cost should provide information to the committee members with an intention to derive sympathy from the committee members. Such an attitude will prompt the members either to reject or award poor marks.·02. I see – you are from Chennai – please tell me about Chennai: Since the candidate belongs to Chennai, he is invited to tell about Chennai and he should have pre-hand information about Chennai and should come forward to tell about important places in Chennai namely; Marina beach, High Court, Kabaleeswarar Temple, Metro train facilities, Santhome church, International airport, Asia’s biggest bus station at Koyembedu and many more.·03. I find that you had studied in Presidency college. What was the reason for your preference of this college?. How was your life in the college? The candidate has to tell about the college; the achievements of the college in academic scenario as well as in sports and in other areas;·04. I find that you had studied “EEE” - why you had chosen the course? The candidate has to tell about the purpose and the potential available for the students who had opted to pursue EEE course.·05. You are in Chennai for a long period. What is your opinion about Chennai?·06. You are having “EEE” in engineering and why you are willing to get employed in banks? (Your reply should be – In fact by working in a bank, I can develop my relationship with public in a better manner; improve my knowledge and provide better service to as many people as possible since the banks are purely service oriented organisations. I find that I can have more career prospects in future by getting employed in the banks)·07. What are your strengths and weaknesses? – Your answer should be: I am always willing to work hard under all circumstances and since I have a good communication ability, I hope that I can surely develop friendship with my colleagues, clients and others in a fast manner so that I can contribute better to the society.·08. You are a highly qualified person having one MBA degree apart from a degree in Engineering. What is the guarantee that you will be in the bank without shifting your attention to some other employment potential after some time?: Your reply should not be: On account of unemployment problem, I am joining the bank; Your reply should be – even though I have better qualifications, I wish to work in the banking industry because I can have better opportunities to serve for the welfare of the society by working in the bank than any other organisations.Responsibilities of the candidates appearing for the interview:The candidate should do a home work and he should always depend upon his positive straits namely; his strength, achievements and abilities and necessarily he should believe in himself that he can accept and do the job in a better manner and he should altogether avoid any negative reply or angry reply under any circumstances; even when provoked or tempted by the interview board members and the candidate should remain calm and wear a broad smile during the entire interview process.A smile has the power to keep the individual in better spirits at all times.The following question may provoke the candidate –·Dear friend, considering your personality, I find that you look like a film actor. How do you feel yourself ?(You had not at all expected this question and you are tempted to provide an apt reply to them: Your reply should be– In fact I am fond of wearing a neat dress and I take care of my health by doing physical exercises regularly apart from eating moderate food and getting into the bed at the appropriate time. I always believe in the following proverb – “Health is wealth”. An individual may not be in a position to discharge his duties properly without adequate health. The habit of eating quality food, regular exercise and better dressing are the factors which are responsible for my personality.B.Second phase of the interview process:During this phase, questions will be asked about the bank for which the candidate is appearing for the interview and the following are some sample questions in case the candidate is appearing for a post in Punjab National Bank:·Do you know – where is the head office of Punjab National Bank?·Who is the present chairman of the bank?·How many branches are there in Punjab National Bank as on date?·Can you tell me about the total business of the bank?·Can you tell me about some deposit schemes available in the bank?·What do you know about the logo of Punjab National Bank?·What is the punchline of Punjab National Bank?·What is the position of Punjab National Bank among the commercial banks in the country as on date?(It is the responsibility of the candidate to collect the necessary information about the bank for which he is appearing for the interview by visiting the website of the bank and referring other material sources in order to get the required information about the bank namely; the headquarters, number of branches, total business, profit position, important schemes, tie up with another banks, achievements of the bank, if any; the present position and ranking of the bank in terms of business, profitability, non performing assets, productivity of the employee etc., In case the candidate is appearing for a group of banks, he should have information in general about all the banks in the group)C.Third phase of the interview:During this phase, questions will be asked on general banking practices as mentioned below:The following are the questions regarding the banks in general:·Have you visited any bank branch? What was your experience?·What is the business of any bank?·What are the essential/primary functions of any bank?·What are the secondary functions of any bank?·Who can open a savings bank account?·What do you know by KYC guidelines?·Why banks insist customers in adhering to KYC guidelines?·What is the difference between Current deposit account and Savings deposit account?·What do you mean by CASA account?·Who normally opens a current account?·What do you know by a fixed deposit account?·Can a company open a savings account?·Can the director of a company open a savings account?·Who is the controlling authority for the banks in India?·What is a foreign bank?·What is meant by a public sector bank?·Which is the largest private sector bank in the country?·Which is the largest bank in the country?·You are working as an officer in savings department. The customer complains about the irritating behavior of the clerk who is working under your supervision. What will you do in this situation?·Your manager delegates some work and you are failing in doing the work within the allotted time and your manager is not happy with your performance. How will you convince your manager?·Today there is some news about annual credit policy. What do you know by that?·What do you know by reverse repo rate?·What is called as inflation?·What is rupee convertibility?·What do you know by gross domestic product?·What do you know by ASBA?·What do you know by Sensex?·What do you know by a convertible debenture?·What is an initial public offer?·What do you know by facebook – whether it is good or bad for any individual and what is your opinion?·What are the advantages and disadvantages of Whatsapp?·What is your opinion about currency demonetization and how far the process helps in improving the economy of the country?(The above questions are illustrative and not exhaustive and the candidate should know fairly well about many banking as well as general aspects)D.The fourth phase of the interview:Like the initial phase or first phase, this fourth phase is also important wherein tricky questions will be asked as mentioned below:·You are hailing from Coimbatore. In case you are posted to Chennai whether you will be willing to work at Chennai?. (Your answer: If I am posted at Coimbatore, I shall try my level best to bring more business to the bank since I know the place and people well and I can take care of family members who are dependent on me. Even otherwise, I shall discharge my duties to the best when I am posted at Chennai)·Suddenly on account of computer crash, you have to sit late – whether you will be willing to sit late and finish the job or leave early without informing your superiors? (Definitely I will never mind in sitting late and I shall always cooperate with my superiors in finishing the day to day functions of the branch. I am one among the team members and I have the responsibility to cooperate with other members during critical situations)·What information are you willing to tell about yourself? (If I am selected, I shall work hard and I shall discharge my duties to the entire satisfaction of my superiors. I shall always do the best from my side for the growth of my organization.)Selected Interview QuestiomsCandidate: 00101.Why you are willing to join in a bank?I am willing to join in a bank since I hope that I may be having more opportunities to serve the public. Banks have better career opportunities by means of periodical promotions to higher cadre.02.What do you mean by appraisal of gold loans?Gold loans are granted against the security of gold jewellery namely gold chains, necklaces etc., The jewellery apart from gold contains certain amount of copper and stones. Appraiser is a person well versed in the art of appraising the jewellery and on appraisal of the jewellery, he will be finding out the approximate gold content so that the bank may be able to provide loans against the gold content.03.What are the different kinds of term deposits available in a commercial bank?The different kinds of term deposits available in a commercial bank are – fixed deposit, recurring deposit and reinvestment deposit. In the case of fixed deposit, a fixed amount is accepted for a definite period and interest is paid on quarterly basis. In the case of reinvestment deposit which is similar to fixed deposit, interest is paid on maturity since interest is reinvested. In the case of recurring deposit, monthly instalments are accepted for a fixed period.04.What is the minimum period for which a fixed deposit is accepted and the maximum period for which a fixed deposit is accepted?The minimum period for which fixed deposit is accepted is seven days and the maximum period is ten years.05.Whether a fixed deposit can be accepted for a period more than ten years?In the case of deposits in the names of minors on account of settlement of claims, the deposit can be for more than ten years06.What do you mean by FERA?FERA means foreign exchange regulations act and it came into effect from the year 1973. An act to regulate certain payments dealing in foreign exchange, securities, the import & export of currency and acquisition of immovable property by foreigners. Under Section 31 (1) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act ( FERA) of 1973, it is mandatory for foreign corporations, which are not incorporated in India to obtain permission from the Reserve Bank Of India (RBI) to acquire, hold, transfer or dispose off in any manner (expect by way of lease for a period not exceeding five years) any immovable property in India.07.What do you mean by ECS?ECS means electronic clearing service and the customer can authorize on periodical basis to make payment of certain utility bills like electricity charges, water charges etc., by debiting his account till such time he submits a revocation letter. Similarly, he can authorize corporate to credit the dividends on shares and interest on debentures as and when due to the credit of his account with the bank.08.What is the minimum amount that can be sent through RTGS?The minimum amount that can be sent through RTGS is Rupees two lakhs and there is no maximum limit09.What is the maximum amount that can be remitted through NEFT?There is no or maximum limit for remittances sent through NEFT10.What is the maximum amount that can be sent abroad by any resident individual?Under liberalized remittance scheme, all resident individuals including minors are allowed to freely remit an amount upto US dollars 250000 (or its equivalent freely convertible foreign currency) per financial year11..What is the name of apex bank which is responsible for the development of agriculture in the country?NABARD is the apex bank which is responsible for the development of agriculture in the country.12.What are the different kinds of schemes available in our country aiming towards poverty alleviation?National old age pension scheme; Jawahar Gramin Samruddi Yojana; National Family Benefit scheme; Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme; National Maternal Benefit Schemel Annapurna etc.,13.What do you mean by crossing of any cheque?Writing of two parallel transverse lines drawn on the face of the cheque on top left hand corner with or without any words between the lines is known as crossing and it is for the purpose of making payment of the cheque through an account in the name of the payee or holder.14.What are the different kinds of crossing?Two parallel transverse lines drawn on the face of the cheque on top left hand corner of the cheque with any words or without any words is known as general crossing and the the payment can be made to the account of the payee or holder with any bank. In case the name of any bank is mentioned within the two parallel lines, it is known as special crossing and in this case, the payment should be made to the account of the payee or holder with the bank mentioned in the crossing only and not to any other bank.15.What do you mean by CASA?CASA means current and savings and this is applicable to computerized branches linked under core banking solution16.Whose signature is available in Rs. 100/- currency note?The signature of RBI governor is available in Rs. 100 currency note17.What do you know by dividend?Dividend is the return available in the form of money for the investments made by the shareholders in the equity shares and preference shares of any company.18.Bank holidays are declared according to which act?Holidays for banks are declared according to Negotiable Instruments act 1881 by the respective state governments in their states. However, all Sundays, all second and fourth Saturdays have been declared as holidays apart from the holidays permitted for religious and national ceremonies.19.Banks are functioning according to which act?Commercial banks in the country are functioning according to Banking Regulation act 1949 and to some extent as per Reserve Bank of India act 193420.RBI is functioning in the country as per which act?Reserve Bank of India is functioning according to Reserve Bank of India act 1934.Candidate: 00201.What do you mean by a guarantee?Guarantee is an undertaking executed by one person called as guarantor in favour of another person called as beneficiary expressing his intention to make payment in the event of failure of the principal debtor on payment of a debt or failure to perform any contract within the stipulated time or according to the terms of the contract.02.What are the different types of guarantees?The different types of guarantees are financial guarantee, performance guarantee and deferred payment guarantee03.What do you mean by letter of credit?Letter of credit is an undertaking executed by one banker on behalf of its customer to honour bills and documents drawn by another person as per the terms and conditions as mentioned in the letter of credit04.What do you know by packing credit advance?It is the preshipment advance granted by one bank to the exporter for the purpose of procuring raw materials; payment of various duties like customs duty, excise duty; packing charges; shipment charges etc.,05.What do you mean by special crossing?In case the name of any bank is mentioned within the two parallel lines, it is known as special crossing and in this case, the payment should be made to the account of the payee or holder with the bank mentioned in the crossing only and not to any other bank.06.What do you know by IFSC code ?IFSC means Indian Financial System Code and this is one alphanumeric code consisting of eleven digits of which the four alphabetic digits represent the name of the bank mentioned in abridged form and the next zero is known as control number and the last six numeric digits represent the branch code of the bank.07.Which is called as mother of deposits?Savings deposit is known as mother of deposits. Normally the first time customers will be advised to open savings deposits with the bank branch before availing any other facility with the bank08.Who is a called as natural guardian?Bother mother and father are known as natural guardian for the purpose of opening accounts in the name of minors represented by the guardian.09.Whether grandfathers and grandmothers can be natural guardians?Grand fathers, grandmothers grand grandfathers or grand grandmothers cannot represent as natural guardians on be behalf of the minors10.Which type of credit facility is available to a farmer for raising crops?For raising crops, the farmers are provided with crop loans, Kisan Credit Cards etc.,11.What do you mean by NULM?National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MHUPA), Government of India in 24th September, 2013 by replacing the existing Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY).The NULM will focus on organizing urban poor in their strong grassroots level institutions, creating opportunities for skill development leading to market-based employment and helping them to set up self-employment venture by ensuring easy access to credit. The Mission is aimed at providing shelter equipped with essential services to the urban homeless in a phased manner. In addition, the Mission would also address livelihood concerns of the urban street vendors12.What do you mean by Gram Sadak Yojana?The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana called as PMGSY was launched by the Government of India for the purpose of providing connectivity to unconnected habitations as part of a poverty reduction strategy. Government of India is endeavouring to set high and uniform technical and management standards and facilitating policy development and planning at state level in order to ensure sustainable management of the rural roads network.13.What are the salient features of MGNREGA?MGNREGA is known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee act and according to this employment is guaranteed at least one person per household in rural areas. It aims at enhancing the livelihood security of people living in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of wage employment during each financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteers to undertake unskilled manual work14.Which authority is supervising the functions of insurance companies?IRDA – Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority is the authority responsible for supervising the functions of insurance companies in our country15.What is meant by IPO?IPO means initial public offer and this is the first time public offer of equity shares, preference shares or debentures to the public for subscription16.What is meant by ASBA?ASBA means applications supported by blocked amount. Nowadays investors are permitted to remit the amount through ASBA demand drafts drawn in ASBA accounts for the purpose of subscribing shares or debentures through initial public offer and further public offer. When the demand draft is issued, instead of debiting the amount in the account, the amount is blocked till such time the shares or debentures are allotted. On allotment, the entire amount is debited; in the case of partial allotment, the amount is debited equivalent to the value of allotment and in the case of non allotment, the entire amount is allowed for further use. For the intervening period, the depositor earns interest as applicable to the category of deposits.17.What is meant by Performance guarantee issued by any commercial bank?In the case of contracts in favour of governments, the contractors are in a position to provide a bank guarantee by a reputed commercial bank, thereby undertaking to guarantee the government department to compensate the loss on account of failure of performance of the contract by the contractor within the due date or failure to perform the contract as per the terms and conditions of the contract. This is known as performance guarantee.18.What do you mean by packing credit facility issued by any commercial bank?Packing guarantee is known as preshipment advance provided by the commercial bank to the exporter for the purpose of procuring raw materials, packing materials or making payment towards customers duty, excise duty, transportation charges etc.,19.What do you mean by notice money?Notice money is money borrowed for a period of two days and more and upto fourteen days in the call money market.20.Treasury bills are issued by which authority and what are the different kinds of treasury bills available in the country?Treasury bills are issued by central government and state governments for the purpose of mobilizing funds from the public and others towards meeting the cost of various projects. There are three kinds of treasury bills as at present namely – 91 days, 182 days and 364 days. 91 days treasury bills are issued each Friday and the notified amount is Rupees one hundred crores. 182 day treasury bills are issued during alternative Wednesdays which is non reporting week and the notified amount is Rupees 100 crores and 364 days treasury bills are issued on alterntive Wednesdays which is a reporting week and the notified amount is Rupees 500 crores.Candidate: 00301.What do you know by PIN number?PIN number is four digit number expressed in numerical characters. PIN number is used for the transactions done using debit cards and credit cards through automated teller machines and point of sale terminals.02.What do you know by PAN number?PAN number is known as permanent account number. This is used for the purpose of remittance of income tax with income tax department. Tax payers should get one PAN number by sending an application along with relevant documents and by payment of specified sum of money to Income tax department or their agencies. It is ten digit number consisting and alphapetical and numerical characters.03.What are the functions of DICGC?DICGC means Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation and this corporation provides deposit insurance upto an amount of Rupees one lakh per depositor per bank in the event of insolvency of the bank and it also provides small loans guarantee upto certain limits04.What is the role played by ECGC?ECGC provides guarantee support to the exporters of the country in the form of several export guarantees05.Mention the Regional Rural Banks which are functioning in Tamilnadu?The Regional rural banks which are functioning in Tamilnadu are Pandiyan Grama Bank and Pallavan Gramin Bank. Pandiyan Grama Bank has been sponsored by Indian Overseas Bank and pallavan Gramin Bank has been sponsored by Indian bank.06.What do you mean by Mergers and what are the different kinds of mergers?When two independent units merge together to form a single unit, it is known as merger. The mergers can be vertical merger, horizontal merger, reverse merger, consolidation, amalgamation etc.,07.What do you mean by horizontal merger and reverse merger?When the business functions of two units are identical in nature and when the merger takes place between those units, it is known as horizontal merger. New Bank of India merged with Punjab National Bank and both are banking organizations. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India Limited was instrumental in establishing ICICI bank as per LPG norms and subsequently Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation Limited merged with ICICI Bank and when a parent unit gets merged with an ancillary unit, it is known as reverse merger.08.Which are the top two private sector banks in our country?The top private sector banks in our country are HDFC bank limited and ICICI bank limited09.Whether housing loan is a priority sector advance and if so, upto what amount?Housing loans granted are treated as priority sector advances subject to certain conditions. Loans to individuals up to Rupees 28 lakh in metropolitan centres (with population of ten lakh and above) and loans up to Rupees 20 lakh in other centres for purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family, are eligible to be considered as priority sector provided the overall cost of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre and at other centres does not exceed Rupees 35 lakh and Rupees 25 lakh, respectively. Housing loans to banks’ own employees are not eligible for classification under priority sector.10.Whether educational loan is a priority sector advance?Loans to individuals for educational purposes including vocational courses upto Rupees 10 lakh irrespective of the sanctioned amount are eligible for classification under priority sector.11.What do you mean by micro, small and medium enterprises?The classification is based on original investment in plant and machinery: For micro enterprises, upto Rs. 25 lakhs for manufacturing units and Rupees 10 lakhs for service units; For small enterprises, for manufacturing units above Rupees 25 lakhs and upto Rs. 5 crores and for service units above Rupees 10 lakhs and upto Rupees 2 crores; For medium enterprises, for manufacturing units above Rupees 5 crores and upto 10 crores and for service units above Rupees 2 crores and upto Rupees five crores12.What do you mean by KYC and name any two important documents which are obtained as per KYC?KYC means know your customer guidelines and these guidelines were prescribed by RBI for new customers who are willing to open accounts with commercial banks and according to KYC, any new customer who is willing to open accounts with commercial banks should submit the photocopy of anyone of the following namely; driving licence, voter id card, AADHAARA card, passport as address proof and photocopy of anyone of the following namely; driving licence, voter id card, AADHAAR card, passport, pancard as identity proof. KYC is antimony laundering device.13.What is the present repo rate and reverse repo rate?The present repo rate is 6.25% and reverse repo rate is 5.75%14.In the case of MICR code, the middle three digits represent what?MICR code consists of nine numerical digits and the middle three numerical digits represent bank name15.PAN number consists of how many alpha characters?PAN number consists of ten digits. The first three alpha characters are random alphapetical characters between AAA to ZZZ; next one alpha character represents the category of the cardholder; the next one alpha character represents the first character of the name of the cardholder; the next four numerical digits are auto generated sequential numbers and the last one single alpha character is a check digit.16.What do you know by biometric automated teller machines?In the case of automated teller machines, the four digit numerical PIN number is used for performing transactions using debit card and credit card. In the case of biometric automated teller machines, instead of PIN numbers, anyone of the following body parts is used – left hand thumb impression; eye retina and voice recognition. In India, the left hand thumb impression is the accepted mode and these kinds of automated teller machines are known as green label automated teller machines.17.What is the criteria by which a bank is considered as largest bank?For the purpose of ranking, a bank is considered to be largest or smallest taking into consideration the business position of the bank; namely – the total deposits and total advances as at the end of March each year.18.What do you mean by commercial paper?Commercial papers are issued by well rated organizations for mobilizing funds from the public and other corporate. They are issued at a discount and they are freely negotiable by endorsement and delivery. The minimum maturity period is seven days and the corporate should have earned credit rating equivalent to P2 issued by CRISIL19.What do you mean by FCNR?FCNR means foreign currency non resident accounts. Non resident Indians and Persons of Indian origin are eligible to invest in this deposit. It is a term deposit accepted in the currencies – US dollar, Sterling Pound, Euro, Japanese Yen, Canadian dollar and Australian dollar. The minimum period of deposit is one year and the maximum period is five years and the deposit is held in foreign currencies and the interest earned is free from income tax.20.What do you mean by Escheat?He is a person who dies without leaving any legal heirs and in this case, his estate will revert to the state government.Candidate: 00401.What do you mean by money laundering?Using the banking channel for the purpose of bringing illegal money is known as money laundering.02.What do you mean by subprime lending?Mass lending by commercial banks to the borrowers without ascertaining the credit worthiness of the borrowers03.What is meant by LPG and who is responsible for introduction of LPG strategy in our country?LPG means liberalization, privatization and globalization and this was coined by Dr. Manmohan Singh, the then finance minister of our country. The salient highlights of the Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation Policy in India are: Foreign Technology Agreements; Foreign Investment; MRTP Act, 1969 (Amended); Industrial Licensing; Deregulation Beginning of privatization; Opportunities for overseas trade; Steps to regulate inflation; Tax reforms; Abolition of License -Permit Raj04.What do you mean by PURA?PURA means providing urban amenities in rural areas. This concept was coined by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the then president of India.05.What do you know by current ratio?It is one equation between current assets and current liabilities. This ratio provides the liquidity position of the organization. When the ratio is more than one it is known as positive current ratio and the unit is having sufficient working capital and when it is less than one, the unit is found to have more current liabilities than current assets and the liquidity position is found to be very weak.06.What do you know about negotiable instruments act?In India, the negotiable instruments act was passed during 1881 which came into force with effect from March 01, 1882. Negotiable instruments means and include promissory note, bills of exchange and cheque payable to order or bearer. Promissory note, bill of exchange, cheque and demand draft are negotiable instruments.07.What do you know by MICR?MICR means magnetic ink character recognition. MICR code is available in MICR bank at the bottom of the cheque or demand draft. It consists of nine numerical digits of which the first three digits represent the centre/city; the middle three digits represent the bank and the last three digits represent the branch of the bank.08.When it comes to rural lending, which are all considered to be priority sector advances?When it comes to rural lending, the loans granted to the following are considered to be priority sector advances – Loans granted to all agriculture related activities; self help group; Differential rate of interest; Loans to SC/ST beneficiaries; Loans provided to doctors for setting up clinics in rural areas; Loans to dealers in fertilizers and pesticides; loans to dealers of springler irrigation and drip irrigation equipments etc.,09.Who is called as an authorized dealer?Authorised dealer is at present known as authorized person. Authorised person is an individual or organization permitted to deal in foreign exchange business in the country.10.What do you know by financial inclusion?Financial inclusion means the following: Providing formal banking services to poor people in urban and rural areas; Promoting the habit of money savings, insurance, pension-investment among poor people; Helping the people in getting loans at reasonable rates from commercial banks so that they do not become victims to local moneylenders11.What are the important initiatives taken through financial inclusion in the country?The following are the important initiatives taken through financial inclusion in our country: Lead banking scheme; No frill accounts; Basic savings bank deposit accounts; JANDHAN accounts; business correspondent and business facilitator facilities; Swabhiman campaign;12.What do you mean by MCLR?MCLR replaces the base rate system. RBI introduced the system with effect from 01.04.2016 in order to determine the base rate by commercial to improve the efficiency of monetary policy transmission. All rupee loans sanctioned and credit limits renewed with effect from 01.04.2016 to be priced with reference to MCLR and it will be an internal benchmark for the banks. It consists of marginal cost of funds, negative carry on account of CRR, operating costs and tenor premium. The marginal cost of funds consists of two components namely; marginal cost of borrowings and return on networth13.What are the major money market instruments?Certificate of deposits; Commercial paper; Inter Bank participation certificates; iner bank term money; Treasury bills; Bills rediscounting and call/notice money14.What are the differences between NEFT and RTGS?Both are two categories of online remittance facilities through CBS enabled branches of commercial banks. The minimum balance that can be sent through RTGS is Rupees two lakhs whereas in the case of NEFT, there is no such limit. The beneficiary gets his funds at real time and it means instantaneously without any loss of time. In the case of the beneficiary gets his funds in between batches15.Who is deciding the rate of interest for savings deposit accounts?Rate of interest for savings deposits is decided by respective commercial banks only and RBI has permitted full freedom in this connection.16.Who cannot open savings deposit accounts?Proprietorship concerns, partnership firms, limited liability partnership firms, private limited companies and public limited companies are not permitted to open savings accounts17.What is meant by memorandum of association?Memorandum of association is the parent document for any company whether it is a private limited company or private limited company. It contains the details of formation of the company, policies, objectives, registered office and more.18.What is known as power of attorney?Power of attorney is an authorization given by one person called as principal in favour of another person called as an agent authorizing the agent to perform certain activities on behalf of the principal and it can be specific power of attorney or particular power of attorney.19.In which currencies FCNR accounts can be opened in our country?FCNR account can be opened in the following currencies namely; US dollars, Sterling Pounds; Euro; Japanese Yen; Australian dollars and Canadian dollars.20.What are the differences between NRE and FCNR?NRE and FCNR accounts are opened by non resident Indians and Persons of Indian Origin in India. NRE accounts are to be opened in rupees whereas FCNR is opened in foreign currencies. NRE accounts can be opened in the form of savings account, current account, reinvestment deposit and fixed deposit whereas, FCNR account is permitted to be opened as fixed deposit or reinvestment deposit. NRE term deposits can be opened for a minimum period of seven days and maximum period of ten years. FCNR accounts can be opened for a minimum period of one year and maximum period of five years.Candidate: 00501.What do you mean by masala bonds?Masala bonds are the bonds issued for rupee denominated borrowings by Indian companies in overseas markets02.What do you mean by secondary market in our country?Secondary market pertains to capital market and it is also known as stock exchange or old issues market. Shares, debentures and bonds can be bought and sold from the stock exchange through registered brokers.03.What do you mean by fund based limits and non fund based limits?The loans provided to the borrowers in the form of term loans, overdrafts, cash credits and bills discounting limits are known as fund based limits since funds are released to the borrowers. Guarantees and letter of credits are non fund based limits since no funds are provided for the time being since they are contingent liabilities.04.What do you mean by off balance sheet items?Guarantees, letter of credits and bills sent for collection for which proceeds are yet to be realized are known as off balance sheet items05.What do you mean by closed ended scheme?This is one form of mutual fund scheme. Like initial public offer, the scheme is open for a certain period only and after which the public cannot invest their amount in the units under this scheme.06.What do you mean by open ended scheme?This is one mutual fund scheme and the units under scheme can be purchased and sold at any time07.What do you mean by overdraft facility granted by a bank?Overdraft is a facility granted by the banks towards meeting the working capital requirements of a borrower. This is provided by means of credit limit over and above the current account balance and the borrower has to pay the interest as and when due.08.What do you mean by collateral security?Collateral security is an additional security provided by the borrower in addition to the primary security. For example, in the case of vehicle loan, the car purchased out of loan is known as the prime security and the insurance policy obtained by the bank from the borrower for the sanction of this loan is known as collateral security.09.In regard to educating a customer, what are the different kinds of information boards displayed in a bank branch?The following boards are available in the bank branches – Working hours and business hours; Interest rates on various deposits; Interest rates for loans; Service charges; Time norms for various services; Details of schemes available in the branch10.Who is the present RBI Governor?The present governor of RBI is Shri Urjit Patel and he is functioning as the governor of RBI since 04th September, 201611.What do you mean by unclaimed deposits?The deposits which are not in operation for more than ten years are known as unclaimed deposits. For the purpose of this classification, the customer induced transactions are only taken into account.12.How many regional centres are available for RBI in the country?Reserve Bank of India has four regional centres at the following places – Chennai, Kolkatta, New Delhi and Mumbai.13.What do you mean by white label automated teller machines?The automated teller machines which are maintained and managed by non bank entities are known as white label automated teller machines. In our country TATA Indicash and Muthoot finance are having such machines installed at various centres.14.What are the advantages of CTS?CTS means cheque truncation scheme. This is used for clearing purpose. Normally commercial banks used to send the physical cheques through their15.What do you mean by certificate of deposits?Certificate of deposits are issued by scheduled commercial banks (except Regional Rural Banks) and all financial institutions within their umbrella limits. Individuals, corporate, companies, trusts, funds and associations can invest in certificate of deposits and they are issued for a minimum period of seven days and maximum period of twelve months in the case of commercial banks and in the case of financial institutions the minimum period is one year and maximum three years, Minimum amount for investment is Rupees one lakh and in multiples of Rupees one lakh.16.RBI is called by which names – mention four names?RBI is called by the following names – banker to banker; lender of the last resort; custodian of banks; banker to government;17.What do you mean by ways and means advances?Ways and means advances were introduced as per an agreement between Reserve Bank of India and Government and they are temporary overdraft facilities provided by RBI to central government and state governments and the purpose is to bridge the time interval of mismatch the government expenditure and receipts. The duration of the limit is ten days for central government and 14 days for state government departments.18.Who is banking ombudsman and by whom he is appointed?Banking Ombudsman is an arbitrary authority who resolves the complaints received from the customers of commercial banks in regard to bank related issues.19.What do you mean by EEFC account?Exchange Earner’s Foreign Currency account is an account maintained in an account maintained in foreign currency with an authorized dealer ; i/e/ a bank dealing in foreign exchange. Professionals, exporters, trainers etc., who are in receipt of foreign exchange for the services extended by them in foreign countries can invest the amount in EEFC account and the account will be in the form of current account and no interest is paid for the balance held in EEFC account.20.What do you know by NBFC?NBFC means non banking finance companies. It is a company registered under Indian Companies act 1956 and presently 2013 engaged in the business of providing loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire purchase, insurance business, chit fund business etc.,Candidate: 00601.What do you mean by arbitrage?It is the process of purchase of one security from one market and selling the same security for earning a profit at the same time at another market.02.What do you mean by Bonus shares?It is the free allotment of shares in certain proportion to the existing shares held by the shareholders of a company and this is a means of providing reward to the investors for their contribution to the growth of the organization by capital investment03.What do you mean by Bull?It is a term given to a speculator on stock exchange who buys the securities in expectation of a rise in the prices. The market is called as bullish when there is a domination of buyers over the sellers04.What is known as dematerialization?Dematerialisation is the process by which shares in the physical form are cancelled and they are issued in electronic form. The certificates are known as demat shares. This process eliminates the time and manpower involved in transfer and registration of shares from the seller to the buyer05.What do you mean by moorat trading?It is the auspicious trading on a special day, say Diwali during some specified hours.06.What do you mean by rights issue?It is the issue of new shares to the existing shareholders in a fixed ratio to those already held at a price which is generally below the market price of the old shares.07.What do you mean by futures?It is a standard contract issued on an agreement to buy or sell an asset at a certain price at a certain time in future. It is an obligation on the buyer to purchase the underlying instrument and the seller to sell it.08.What do you mean by forward?The forward is a contract that is traded off the stock exchange and it is self regulatory and has certain flexibility unlike future which are traded at stock exchange only and it do not have flexibility of quantity and quality of commodity to be delivered and these are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India, Reserve Bank of India or other agencies.09.What do you mean by factoring?Factoring is an arrangement in which short term domestic receivables on sale of goods or services are sold to a company called as factor and this scheme came into existence during 1991 based on the report of Kalyanasundaram Committee10.What do you mean by forfeiting?Forfaiting represents the purchase of obligations, which fall due at some future date and arise from the delivery of goods in export transactions, without recourse to the previous holder of the obligations.11.What do you mean by leasing?A lease is a contract where the owner of the assets transfers the right to another person to use the assets against the payment of fixed lease rentals. In the case of one lease contract, there are two parties namely – the lessor or the owner and the lessee or user. The lessor remains owner and the leased property remains with the possession of the lessee.12.What do you mean by debt market?It is a market wherein the debt instruments are issued to the public by any company for investment and such debt instrument bears a fixed interest rate payable half yearly on specific dates and principal amount repayable on particular date on redemption. Debentures are normally secured/charged against the asset of the company in favour of debenture holder. The following are some debt instruments – debenture; bond; zero coupon bond; convertible bond; security receipts etc.,13.What do you mean by greenshoe option?It is an option provided by Securities and Exchange Board of India to a company which is coming out with one initial public offer to the public. By this option, the company can retain certain portion of the applications received through IPO in case of oversubscription.14.What do you mean by equity market?Equity market consists of investment by the public in different kinds of shares issued by the company and by subscribing for the shares, the investors are expressing their willingness to stand as owners of the company. The equity market consists of equity shares, preference shares, rights shares, bonus shares etc.,15.What do you mean by sweat equity?Directors and employees contribute intellectual property rights to the company in the form of providing technical know-how captured by way of research or contributed by way of strategy software developed for the company or adding profit and economic value. To compensate the directors and employees, the concept of sweat equity has come into existence.16.What do you mean by participatory notes?A participatory note is a financial derivative instrument issued against an underlying security and it allows the holder, to get dividend or capital gains earned from the underlying security although some of the holders may not be eligible to trade in stock markets in India.17.What do you mean by book building?Book building is the process to assess the demand for a particular public issue of various prices, based on which the issue is priced and sold to the investors.18.What do you mean by sensex?It is a stock market index provided by Bombay Stock Exchange for the information of the investors. The positive or negative variation in the index provides an insight for investment or dis-investment to the general public and especially the investors in the stock market. It is based on the market capitalization of top thirty shares earmarked by BSE19.What do you mean by Nifty?It is a stock market index provided by National Stock Exchange for the information of the investors. The positive or negative variation in the index provides an insight for the investment or dis-investment to the general public and especially the investors who are participating in stock market trading. It is based on the market capitalization of top fifty shares earmarked by NSE20.What do you mean by swap?A swap is a contract that binds two counterparties to exchange the different streams of payments over the specified period at specified rate.

You can use the following answer key which has been diligently prepared by a team of diverse faculties from leading institutes, where each solution for a particular question has also been backed with a credible source as well.Special thanks to Mr. Pranav Chauhan, Mr. Mansimar Singh and Shri User-13211618028665871653 (IAS) for their valuable inputs in this key.Analysis :The paper was moderately difficult like that in 2017 but there were also relatively easier knock-offs when compared to 2018.Breakdown of various subjects asked this year :1. Environment : 18 questions2. Science & Tech : 14 questions3. Economics : 17 questions4. History : 15 questions5. Geography : 10 questions6. Polity and Governance : 17 questions7. Miscellaneous : 9 questionsEstimated Cutoffs based on paper difficulty and students’ response :General : 105–108.OBC : 100–105SC : 91–95ST : 84–88KEY FOR SET-D UPSC Prelims 2019 :1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c). 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: About AIIB Overview - AIIB2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lendingAnswer: DSource: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/announcements/others/indian-bank-inter-creditor-agreement-for-resolution-of-stressed-assets/article24809734.ece3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankAnswer: ASource: How public sector bank CEOs are selected4. Consider the following statements:1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource: Welcome to Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board, India5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource: Difference Between LTE and VoLTE6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CStatement 2 is wrong:Refer: Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017: Significant Provisions and Issuessignificant-provisions-and-issues/Correct Statement: The women employees should be permitted to visit the facility 4 timesduring the day.https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/Maternity%20Benefit%20Amendment%20Act%2C2017%20.pdf7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?(a) Maintenance of law and order(b) Paying taxes(c) Registering property(d) Dealing with construction permitsAnswer: ASource: Methodology for Doing Business8. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011Answer: CSource: Environment Ministry Notifies E-Waste Management Rules, 20169. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus(a) transportation cost only(b) interest cost only(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godownsAnswer: CSource: Procurement- Food Corporation of India10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?(a) The proportion of literates in the population(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines(c) The size of population in the working age group(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the societyAnswer: DSource: Social capital - Wikipedia11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of(a) Integrated Rural Programme(b) Lead Bank Scheme(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme(d) National Skill Development MissionAnswer: BSource : What is Service Area Approach?12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource: Minor Minerals - Arthapedia13. Consider the following statements:1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Why is external debt a cause for worry?14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?(a) Advances(b) Deposits(e) Investments(d). Money at call and short noticeAnswer: BSource : Liabilities and Assets of Scheduled Commercial Banks (Main Items)15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector2. Increasing the government expenditure3. Remittances from Indians abroadSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: : BSource : Basic Economic Concepts [NCERT Class 11 and 12]16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)Answer: CSource : Governor’s Role in the Context of Centre State Relations17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?(a) Certificate of Deposit(b) Commercial Paper(c) Promissory Note(d) Participatory NoteAnswer: DSource : Participatory Notes Allow Foreign Investors to Buy Indian Securities18. Consider the following statements1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : CAMPA bill - Wikipedia19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees3. Finance Commission4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission5. NITI AayogSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 3, 4 and 5(d) 2 and 5Answer: ASource : Laxmikanth20. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : NCERT Class 11 Economicshttps://www.nipfp.org.in/media/pdf/books/BK_33/Chapters/1.%20Import%20Substitution%20Strategy%20Of%20Economic%20Development.pdfFive-Year Plans of India - Wikipedia21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource : Laxmikanth22. Consider the following statements1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: ASource : Measuring India’s economy using PPPs shows it surpassed France 25 years ago23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: AStatement 2 is incorrect.Source- https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/rabi-sowing-down-by-5/article26029944.ece24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?(a) Spices(b) Fresh fruits(c) Pulses(d) Vegetable oilsAnswer: DSource – Let’s cut edible oil importsWhy doubling agri exports may remain elusive25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers(b) Absence of restraint(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.Answer: DSource - Indian Preamble26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing(d) Following an expansionary monetary policyAnswer: DSource – NCERT class 11 and 12 Economics27. Consider the following statements:The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar yearWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - Reserve Bank of IndiaIn Defence of Data Localisation — Will The Move Bolster Data Sovereignty In India28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?(a) Australia(b) Canada(c) The European Union(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: CSource - General Data Protection Regulation - Wikipedia29. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?(a) Japan(b) Russia(c) The United Kingdom(d) The United States of AmericaAnswer: b30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio(d) Increase in the population of the countryAnswer: bSource- Multiplier Effect Definition31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.Answer: BSource - Article 142 in The Constitution Of India 194933. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: C34. Consider the following statements:1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: CStatement 3 is incorrect.Source - https://www.unodc.org/unodc/en/treaties/CAC/35. Consider the following statements:1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource - Bamboo not a tree: Parliament passes Bill amending Forest Acthttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/bamboo-now-a-minor-forest-produce-3323936. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?(a) Article 19(b) Article 21(c) Article 25(d) Article 29Answer: BWider Interpretation of Article 21Source - http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/art222.htm37. Consider the following statements:1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource –https://www.ifoam.bio/en/news/2018/05/08/indian-supreme-court-says-seeds-plants-and-animals-are-not-patentable http://www.mondaq.com/india/x/611548/Trademark/The+Intellectual+Property+Appellate+Board+Power+Constitution38. Consider the following statements:The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sourcesWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://bch.cbd.int/database/attachment/?id=1905239. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.(b) The Rules are applicable to riotified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.Answer: CSource - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138591http://cpcb.nic.in/municipal-solid-waste-rules/40. Consider the following statements:As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 20181. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource – http://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/daily-news/industrial-employment-standing-orders-central-amendment-rules-2018-fixed-term-employment41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) 4 onlyAnswer: BStatement 1 is wrong because AR doesn’t shut off Physical realitySource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs(b) an early human species(c) a cave system found in North-East India.(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinentAnswer: BSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denisovan43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.Answer: ASource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petri_dishhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cell_culture and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_replication44. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchangedWhich of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: https://www.docusign.com/how-it-works/electronic-signature/digital-signature/digital-signature-faqhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signatureSource : http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired personSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6111409/46. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 2 and 3(c) 1 and 3(d) 1 and 4 onlyAnswer: ASource : https://www.livemint.com/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interferencehttps://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1697196747. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.Answer: BSource:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/watch-binary-black-holes-merger/article18700610.ece48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some peopleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/the-cost-of-resistance/article27005283.ece49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified cropsAnswer: : Ahttps://phys.org/news/2019-02-scientists-sharpen-molecular-scissors-gene.htmlhttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-genome-editing/article19481402.ece50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.Answer: BSource : https://www.hepb.org/prevention-and-diagnosis/vaccination/51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(e) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: D52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.Answer: BSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Land_reform_in_India53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the(a) International Monetary Fund(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development(c) World Economic Forum(d) World BankAnswer: CSource: http://reports.weforum.org/54. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Spectrum Book page-566-56755. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: CSource: Spectrum, Bipin Chandra’s India’s Struggle for independence Page-13056. Consider the following pairs:Movement/Organization Leader1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami NaickerWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: Spectrum , Wikipedia57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?(a) Chanhudaro(b) Kot Diji(c) Sohgaura(d) DesalpurAnswer: cSource : Sohgaura is near Gorakhpur, which falls outside the Harappan Area Map.58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?(a) Kanganahalli(b) Sanchi I(c) Shahbazgarhi(d) SohgauraAnswer: ASource: Wikipedia and http://bharatkalyan97.blogspot.com/2011/07/asoka-on-ancient-indian-sculptures.html59. Consider the following:1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and ritualsWhich of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource: RS Sharma, https://www.gktoday.in/gk/hinayana-mahayana/60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.Answer: ASource: Upendra Singh (Page:508)Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=H3lUIIYxWkEC&pg=PA508&lpg=PA508&dq=vishti+forced+labour+in+kathiawar&source=bl&ots=xf9E4T6ZkD&sig=ACfU3U2yg3DCAuGhsU3x22JsPuSxzK6wzw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjKgP-zzcriAhUFsY8KHRQ1DoAQ6AEwCXoECAgQAQ#v=onepage&q=vishti%20forced%20labour%20in%20kathiawar&f=false61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber.(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane(d) Rubber, coffee and wheatAnswer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange#Organism_examples62. Consider the following statements:1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASources:https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/mammals/a/asiatic-lion/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lionhttps://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/india-interior/two-humps-one-job-in-nubra-valley/article7900544.ecehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_rhinoceros#Distribution_and_habitat63. Consider the following pairsFamous place RiverPandharpur ChandrabhagaTiruchirappalli CauveryHampi MalaprabhaWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hampi#Location64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because(a) poverty rates vary from State to State(b) price levels vary from State to State(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to StateAnswer: Either A or BSource:- https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/how-poverty-line-measured65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth(d) Reducing the global warmingAnswer: Dhttps://journals.ametsoc.org/doi/full/10.1175/JCLI-D-17-0620.166. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?(a) Extraction of rare earth elements(b) Natural gas extraction technologies(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles(d) Waste-to-energy technologiesAnswer: DSource:- https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger ReserveAnswer: ASOURCE:- https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/tags/agasthyamala-biosphere-reserve68. Consider the following statements:1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.2. Some species of fish are herbivores.3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(e) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://www.seeturtles.org/sea-turtle-diethttp://www.healthyreefs.org/cms/healthy-reef-indicators/herbivorous-fish-abundance/https://www.noaa.gov/education/resource-collections/marine-life-education-resources/marine-mammalshttp://www.reptileknowledge.com/articles/article28.php69. Consider the following pairs:Wildlife Naturally found in1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern GhatsWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: CSource :https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/iconic-indian-fish-on-the-verge-of-extinction-says-study-49802https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irrawaddy_dolphinhttp://www.conservationindia.org/articles/the-forgotten-wild-cats-of-the-eastern-ghats70. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.Answer: : ASource : https://www.environment.gov.au/protection/waste-resource-recovery/plastics-and-packaging/plastic-microbeads71. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of(a) Chalukya(b) Chandela(c) Rashtrakuta(d) VijayanagaraAnswer: DSOURCE : https://www.jagranjosh.com/general-knowledge/cultural-history-vijaynagar-empire-architecture-literature-and-art-1492780525-172. Consider the following statements:1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource : Statement 2- IQTA System introduced in medieval (not ancient) period.Statement 3-Office of Mir Bakshi introduced during Mughal period.73. Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: DSource :https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nimbarkahttp://www.southasiaanalysis.org/paper924https://www.sikhiwiki.org/index.php/Jahangir_and_the_Muslim_fundamentalist_movement74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: BSource :https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Mahatma_Gandhi,_his_life,_writings_and_speeches/Indentured_Labourhttps://scroll.in/article/680616/even-gandhi-apostle-of-peace-wanted-indians-to-fight-in-world-war-iStatement 3- Page 421, Spectrum(A brief history of modern India)75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:Person Position held1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of IndiaWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource :https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kshitish_Chandra_Neogyhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Puran_Chand_Joshi76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.Answer: ASource:- https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?(a) Humayun(b) Akbar(c) Jahangir(d) Shah JahanAnswer: CSource : https://www.academia.edu/33006704/Mughal_Paintings78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?(a) Manas National Park(b) Namdapha National Park(c) Neora Valley National Park(d) Valley of Flowers National ParkAnswer: DSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valley_of_Flowers_National_Park#Vegetation79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the(a) Department of Science and Technology(b) Ministry of Employment(c) NITI Aayog(d) Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipAnswer: CSource : http://vikaspedia.in/education/policies-and-schemes/atal-innovation-mission80. On 21st June, the Sun(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of CapricornAnswer: ASource : GC LEONG, PAGE NO-681. Consider the following statements:1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource - http://www.ghgonline.org/nitrousagri.htmhttps://www.government.nl/topics/livestock-farming/ammonia-emissions-from-farmshttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits(b) Tropical rain forests(c) Underground cave systems(d) Water reservoirsAnswer: DSource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aliyar_Reservoirhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isapur_Damhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kangsabati_Project83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: BSource - https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/09/11/rajya-sabha-tv-in-depth-hcng-fuel-of-the-future/https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cng-to-hydrogen-cng-why-switch-and-how-5278356/84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.(c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.Answer: BSource - https://www.pitara.com/science-for-kids/5ws-and-h/how-does-dew-form/85. Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: BSource – http://www.ias4sure.com/wikiias/gs2/44th-amendment/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Judicial_Appointments_Commission86. Consider the following statements:1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2(b) 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4Answer: CSource – Laxmikanth Page 25.2 and 25.387. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of(a) Jawaharlal Nehru(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri(c) Indira Gandhi(d) Morarji DesaiAnswer: ASource - http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/essay/judicial-review-and-the-ninth-schedule-of-the-indian-constitution/2498288. Consider the following statements:1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: ASource - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coal_mining_in_Indiahttp://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=160021https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/indias-coal-import-rises-13-to-21-mt-in-april/articleshow/69503158.cms89. Consider the following statements:1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: AArticle 102 only mentions the term “Office of Profit” without defining it.Source - https://indiankanoon.org/doc/390434/90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?(a) Third Schedule(b) Fifth Schedule(c) Ninth Schedule(d) Twelfth ScheduleAnswer: BSource – https://tribal.nic.in/FRA/data/LandandGovernanceunderFifthSchedule.pdfhttps://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/forests/-progressive-maharashtra-governor-must-step-in-to-save-tribal-land-rights-6421791. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of(a) anti-malarial drug(b) blodiesel(c) pulp for paper industry(d) textile fibreAnswer: DSource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/environment/khar-s-experimentation-with-himalayan-nettle-brings-recognition-5788092. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location3. Land surface temperatures of a specific locationSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: D93. Consider the following States:1. Chhattisgarh2. Madhya Pradesh3. Maharashtra4. OdishaWith reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?(a) 2-3-1-4(b) 2-3-4-1(c) 3-2-4-1(d) 3-2-1-4Answer: CSource: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forest_cover_by_state_in_India94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: DSource : https://ghginstitute.org/2010/07/13/what-is-different-about-methane-ch4-emissions-the-forgotten-co2-in-ghg-emissions-accounting/95. Consider the following:1. Carbon monoxide2. Methane3. Ozone4. Sulphur dioxideWhich of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 1 and 4 'only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: DSource : https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/environment/pollution/biomass-burning-a-major-source-of-pollution-in-india/articleshow/45093405.cms?from=mdr96. Consider the following pairs:Sea Bordering country1. Adriatic Sea Albania2. Black Sea Croatia3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco5. Red Sea SyriaWhich of the pair given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 5 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5Answer: BSource : Atlas97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?(a) China(b) India(c) Myanmar(d) VietnamAnswer: bSource : http://www.worldstopexports.com/rice-exports-country/98. Consider the following pairs:Glacier River1. Bandarpunch Yamuna2. Bara Shigri Chenab3. Milam Mandakini4. Siachen Nubra5. Zemu ManasWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4(b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 2 and 5(d) 3 and 5Answer: aSource : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_glaciers_of_India99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as(a) pesticides in agriculture(b) preservatives in processed foods(c) fruit-ripening agents(d) moisturising agents in cosmeticsAnswer: ASource : https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/pesticide-ban-lands-kerala-in-court-33657100. Consider the following statements:1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer : CSource : https://www.ramsar.org/about/the-ramsar-convention-and-its-mission